Post 807754 by noelle@elekk.xyz
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 (DIR) Post #807753 by tonf@sleeping.town
       2018-10-27T22:12:21Z
       
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       Why are Latin verbs usually given in first person present when verbs in other languages (ex. French, Spanish, Italian) are given in the infinitive?
       
 (DIR) Post #807754 by noelle@elekk.xyz
       2018-10-27T22:17:36Z
       
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       @tonf I'm not sure I could defend this hypothesis, but I suspect it's because of how Latin verbs are presented in textbooks. Students are given the Four Principal Parts of each verb - present active indicative first singular, present infinitive, perfect active indicative first singular, and perfect passive participle. (amo, amare, amavi, amatus: I love, to love, I loved, having been loved.) That gives you all the information needed to form any conjugation of that verb.
       
 (DIR) Post #807799 by noelle@elekk.xyz
       2018-10-27T22:20:03Z
       
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       @tonf It does bug me, especially when someone says something like "amo (which means 'to love')" - no it doesn't. And I try to remember to use the infinitive when I post Latin out of context.
       
 (DIR) Post #871446 by tonf@sleeping.town
       2018-10-31T01:07:03Z
       
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       @noelle That does sound like a reasonable idea, in other languages (cough French) it's often difficult to know how to conjugate verbs. (Sorry for the late reply, and thank you)