[HN Gopher] Is 1 Prime, and Does It Matter?
       ___________________________________________________________________
        
       Is 1 Prime, and Does It Matter?
        
       Author : jamespropp
       Score  : 57 points
       Date   : 2025-04-21 19:25 UTC (3 hours ago)
        
 (HTM) web link (mathenchant.wordpress.com)
 (TXT) w3m dump (mathenchant.wordpress.com)
        
       | JJMcJ wrote:
       | One reason that 1 is often excluded from the prime numbers is
       | that if it was included, it would complicate the theorems,
       | proofs, and exposition by the endless repetition of "not equal to
       | 1".
        
         | reaperman wrote:
         | Yes, it's more of a convention where we assume language like
         | "...ignoring the trivial case of 1 being an obvious factor of
         | every integer." It's not interesting or meaningful, so we
         | ignore it for most cases.
        
           | gerdesj wrote:
           | I'm no expert but:
           | 
           | "...ignoring the trivial case of 1 being an obvious factor of
           | every integer."
           | 
           | I remember quite a big chunk of GEB formally defining how
           | integers are really not trivial! The main problem seems to be
           | is that you soon end up with circular reasoning if you are
           | not razor sharp with your definitions. That's just in an
           | explainer book 8)
           | 
           | Then you have to define what factor means ...
        
             | Maxatar wrote:
             | Correct, it's impossible to specifically and formally
             | define the natural numbers so that addition and
             | multiplication work. Any definition of the natural numbers
             | will also define things that look very similar to natural
             | numbers but are not actually natural numbers.
        
               | stouset wrote:
               | Do you have a link to where I could learn more about
               | this?
        
               | gerdesj wrote:
               | You might start here:
               | https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/G%C3%B6del,_Escher,_Bach
               | 
               | That's the GEB I mentioned above.
        
               | pinkmuffinere wrote:
               | I know this is a great book, it's been on my to-read list
               | for about 5 years. But I never get to it. Is there not
               | another (shorter) discussion I could read on this? Even
               | an academic paper would be acceptable.
        
               | gerdesj wrote:
               | As I said above, I'm not an expert. However, I read GEB
               | on a whim when bored at school and I think it still
               | informs my thinking 35 years later.
               | 
               | Move GEB up the reading list right now! The edition I
               | initially read was hard bound and was quite worn. I
               | bought and read it again about 20 years ago and found
               | more treasures.
               | 
               | It is a proper nerd grade treatise for non experts who
               | are interested in maths, music and art. Really: maths,
               | music and art from a mostly mathematical perspective.
               | Hofstadter's writing style is very easy going and he is a
               | master of clarity without complexity.
               | 
               | I don't think you need any more Maths than you would get
               | up to age 18 or so at school to understand the entire
               | book and probably less. Even if you gloss the formal
               | Maths the book still works.
        
               | Maxatar wrote:
               | There's no shortage of blog posts on the topic, but here
               | is one that is fairly rigorous but doesn't assume too
               | much background knowledge:
               | 
               | https://risingentropy.com/a-result-on-the-incompleteness-
               | of-...
        
               | overboard2 wrote:
               | What do you mean by "not actually"?
               | 
               | Edit: do you mean literally impossible?
        
               | Maxatar wrote:
               | I mean it's logically impossible to formally and
               | specifically define the natural numbers without
               | introducing a logical inconsistency. The best you can do
               | is define a set that has all the properties of natural
               | numbers but will also define things that aren't natural
               | numbers as well.
               | 
               | As an analogy you could imagine trying to define the set
               | of all animals with a bunch of rules... "1. Animals have
               | DNA, 2. Animals ingest organic matter. 3. Animals have a
               | nervous system. 4. ... etc..."
               | 
               | And this is true of all animals, but it will also be true
               | of things that aren't animals as well, like slime molds
               | which are not quite animals but very similar to them.
               | 
               | Okay so you keep adding more rules to narrow down your
               | definition and stamp out slime molds, but you find some
               | other thing satisfy that definition...
               | 
               | Now for animals maybe you can eventually have some very
               | complex rule set that defines animals exactly and rules
               | out all non-animals, but the principle is that this is
               | not possible for natural numbers.
               | 
               | We can have rules like "0" is a natural number. For every
               | natural number N there is a successor to it N + 1. If N +
               | 1 = M + 1 then N = M. There is no natural number Q such
               | that Q + 1 = 0.
               | 
               | Okay this is a good starting point... but just like with
               | animals there are numbers that satisfy all of these rules
               | but aren't natural numbers. You can keep adding more and
               | more rules to try to stamp these numbers out, but no
               | matter how hard, even if you add infinitely many rules,
               | there will always be infinitely many numbers that satisfy
               | your rules but aren't natural numbers.
               | 
               | In particular what you really want to say is that a
               | natural number is finite, but no matter how hard you try
               | there is no formal way to actually capture the concept of
               | what it means to be finite in general so you end up with
               | these mutant numbers that satisfy all of your rules but
               | have infinitely many digits, and these are called non-
               | standard natural numbers.
               | 
               | The reason non-standard natural numbers are a problem is
               | because you might have a statement like "Every even
               | integer greater than 2 can be written as the sum of two
               | primes." and this statement might be true of the actual
               | natural numbers but there might exist some freak mutant
               | non-standard natural number for which it's not true.
               | Unless your rules are able to stamp out these mutant non-
               | standard natural numbers, then it is not possible to
               | prove this statement, the statement becomes undecidable
               | with respect to your rules. The only statements you can
               | prove with respect to your rules are statements that are
               | true of the real natural numbers as well as true of all
               | the mutant natural numbers that your rules have not been
               | able to stamp out.
               | 
               | So it's in this sense that I mean that it's not possible
               | to specifically define the natural numbers. Any
               | definition you come up with will also apply to mutant
               | numbers, and these mutant numbers can get in the way of
               | you proving things that are in principle true about the
               | actual natural numbers.
        
               | gerdesj wrote:
               | It seems you know what you are on about! Thank you for a
               | cracking comment.
               | 
               | I've always had this feeling that the foundations
               | (integers etc) are a bit dodgy in formal Maths but just
               | as with say Civil Engineering, your world hasn't fallen
               | apart for at least some days and it works. Famously, in
               | Physics involving quantum: "Shut up and calculate".
               | 
               | Thankfully, in the real world I just have to make web
               | pages, file shares and glittery unicorns available to the
               | computers belonging to paying customers. Securely ...
               | 
               | The foundational aspect equivalent of integers in IT
               | might be DNS. Fuck around with either and you come
               | unstuck rather quickly without realising exactly why
               | until you get suitably rigorous ...
               | 
               | I'm also a networking bod (with some jolly expensive test
               | gear) but that might be compared to pencils and paper for
               | Maths 8)
        
               | pja wrote:
               | > Correct, it's impossible to specifically and formally
               | define the natural numbers so that addition and
               | multiplication work. Any definition of the natural
               | numbers will also define things that look very similar to
               | natural numbers but are not actually natural numbers.
               | 
               | Are such objects not inevitably isomorphic to the natural
               | numbers?
               | 
               | Can you give an example of a formal definition that leads
               | to something that obviously isn't the same as the
               | naturals?
        
               | btilly wrote:
               | The Peano Axioms lead to both the standard model of
               | arithmetic (the integers that we want), and nonstandard
               | models. See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Non-
               | standard_model_of_arithmet....
               | 
               | In that article you'll see references to "first order
               | logic" and "second order logic". First order logic
               | captures any possible finite chain of reasoning. Second
               | order logic allows us to take logical steps that would
               | require a potentially infinite amount of reasoning to do.
               | Godel's famous theorems were about the limitations of
               | first order logic. While second order logic has no such
               | limitations, it is also not something that humans can
               | actually do. (We can reason about second order logic
               | though.)
               | 
               | Anyways a nonstandard model of arithmetic can have all
               | sorts of bizarre things. Such as a proof that Peano
               | Axioms lead to a contradiction. While it might seem that
               | this leads to a contradiction in the Peano Axioms, it
               | doesn't because the "proof" is (from our point of view)
               | infinitely long, and so not really a proof at all! (This
               | is also why logicians have to draw a very careful
               | distinction between "these axioms prove" and "these
               | axioms prove that they prove"...)
        
               | john-h-k wrote:
               | Can you elaborate on this?
               | 
               | My understanding is you can specifically and formally
               | define the natural numbers with addition and
               | multiplication, although multiplication means the
               | language is no longer decidable.
               | 
               | You can define natural numbers with just addition (
               | Presburger arithmetic ) and it's decidable.
               | 
               | Im not sure how undecidable <=> "will define things that
               | are similar to natural numbers but are not" but maybe I
               | am missing something
        
               | Maxatar wrote:
               | Yeah for sure.
               | 
               | If a sentence S is undecidable from your axioms for the
               | natural numbers then there are two models A and B
               | satisfying those axioms where A satisfies S and B
               | satisfies not S. So which one is the standard natural
               | numbers, is it A or B?
               | 
               | Either A or B will be an example of something that
               | satisfies your definition of natural numbers and yet is
               | not the natural numbers.
        
               | sam_ezeh wrote:
               | >Any definition of the natural numbers will also define
               | things that look very similar to natural numbers but are
               | not actually natural numbers
               | 
               | This isn't correct. This is only true for first-order
               | theories of the natural numbers using the axiom schema of
               | induction. Second-order Peano arithmetic with the full
               | axiom of induction has the natural numbers as its only
               | model. This property is called "categoricity" and you can
               | find the proof here [1] if you're interested
               | 
               | [1]: https://builds.openlogicproject.org/content/second-
               | order-log...
        
         | JadeNB wrote:
         | > One reason that 1 is often excluded from the prime numbers is
         | that if it was included, it would complicate the theorems,
         | proofs, and exposition by the endless repetition of "not equal
         | to 1".
         | 
         | This is true and compelling as things developed, but I think
         | it's an explanation of where history brought us, rather than a
         | logical inevitability. For example, I can easily imagine, in a
         | different universe, teachers patiently explaining that we
         | declare that the empty set is not a set, to avoid complicating
         | theorems, proofs, and exposition by the endless repetition of
         | "non-empty set."
         | 
         | (I agree that this is different, because there's no interesting
         | "unique factorization theorem" for sets, but I can still
         | imagine things developing this way. And, indeed, there _are_
         | complications caused by allowing the empty set in a model of a
         | structure, and someone determined to do so can make themselves
         | pointlessly unpopular by asking  "but have you considered the
         | empty manifold?" and similar questions. See also
         | https://mathoverflow.net/questions/45951/interesting-
         | example....)
        
           | tux3 wrote:
           | That's an interesting thought, but I think that'd break the
           | usual trick of building up objects from the empty set, a set
           | containing the empty set, then the set containing both of
           | those and so forth.
           | 
           | That universe would be deprived from the bottomless
           | wellspring of dryness that is the set theoretic foundations
           | of mathematics. Unthinkable!
        
             | JadeNB wrote:
             | > That universe would be deprived from the bottomless
             | wellspring of dryness that is the set theoretic foundations
             | of mathematics. Unthinkable!
             | 
             | "Wellspring of dryness" is quite a metaphor, and I take it
             | from that metaphor that this outcome wouldn't much bother
             | you. I'll put in a personal defense for set theory, but
             | only an appeal to my personal taste, since I have no
             | expert, and barely even an amateurish, knowledge of set
             | theory beyond the elementary; but I'll also acknowledge
             | that set-theoretic foundations are not to everyone's taste,
             | and that someone who has an alternate foundational system
             | that appeals to them is doing no harm to themselves or to
             | me.
             | 
             | > That's an interesting thought, but I think that'd break
             | the usual trick of building up objects from the empty set,
             | a set containing the empty set, then the set containing
             | both of those and so forth.
             | 
             | In this alternate universe, the ZF or ZFC axioms (where C
             | becomes, of course, "the product of sets is a set") would
             | certainly involve, not the axiom of the empty set, but
             | rather some sort of "axioms of sets", declaring that there
             | exists a set. Because it's not empty, this set has at least
             | one element, which we may extract and use to make a one-
             | element set. Now observe that all one-element sets are set-
             | theoretically the same, and charge ahead with the
             | construction not O, {O}, {O, {O}}, etc. but *, * [?] {*}, *
             | [?] {*} [?] {* [?] {*}}, etc. Then all that would be left
             | would be to decide whether our natural numbers started at
             | the cardinality 1 of *, or if we wanted natural numbers to
             | count quantities 1 less than the cardinality of a set.
        
           | gus_massa wrote:
           | Many (most?) results are easier to write if you allow the
           | empty set. For example:
           | 
           | " _The intersection of two sets is a set._ "
        
             | JadeNB wrote:
             | > Many (most?) results are easier to write if you allow the
             | empty set. For example:
             | 
             | > "The intersection of two sets is a set."
             | 
             | Many results in set theory, yes! (Or at least in elementary
             | set theory. I'm not a set theorist by profession, so I
             | can't speak to how often it arises in research-level set
             | theory.) But, once one leaves set theory, the empty set can
             | cause problems. For the first example that springs to mind,
             | it is a cute result that, if a set S has a binary operation
             | * such that, for every pair of elements a, b in S, there is
             | a unique solution x to a*x = b, and a unique solution y to
             | y*a = b, then * makes S a group ... unless S is empty!
             | 
             | In fact, on second thought, even in set theory, there are
             | things like: the definition of a partial order being a well
             | ordering would become simpler to state if the empty set
             | were disallowed; and the axiom of choice would become just
             | the statement that the product of sets is a set! I'm sure
             | that I could come up with more examples where allowing
             | empty sets complicates things, just as you could come up
             | with more examples where it simplifies them. That there is
             | no unambiguous answer one direction or the other is why I
             | believe this alternate universe could exist, but we're not
             | in it!
        
           | murderfs wrote:
           | A good example of this is the natural numbers. Algebraists
           | usually consider zero to be a natural number because
           | otherwise, it's not a monoid and set theorists want zero
           | because it's the size of the empty set. My number theory
           | textbook defined natural numbers as positive integers, but
           | I'm not entirely sure why.
        
             | mathgeek wrote:
             | > My number theory textbook defined natural numbers as
             | positive integers, but I'm not entirely sure why.
             | 
             | Since both the inclusion and exclusion of zero are accepted
             | definitions depending on who's asking, books usually just
             | pick one or define two sets (commonly denoted as N_0 and
             | N_1). Different topics benefit from using one set over the
             | other, as well as having to deal with division by zero,
             | etc. Number theory tends to exclude zero.
        
         | tikhonj wrote:
         | And the reason we'd have to constantly exclude 1 is that it
         | behaves in a qualitatively different way than prime numbers--
         | and understand what this means and why that's the case is the
         | real insight here.
        
         | jordigh wrote:
         | To be fair, 2 is also a very odd prime because it's even.
         | 
         | So many theorems have to say, "for every odd prime..."
         | 
         | https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1177104/what-is-an-...
        
           | kordlessagain wrote:
           | The concept of "one" holds a dual role. It represents a
           | countable unit: something you can put in a bowl and also
           | stands for indivisibility itself. When you divide any
           | quantity by an indivisible unit, you're simply counting how
           | many of those indivisibles fit within it. Then comes 2: the
           | first number that is divisible, but only by itself and the
           | indivisible one. That's what makes it prime. A prime is a
           | number divisible only by itself and by 1, the indivisible
           | origin of all counting.
        
             | aleph_minus_one wrote:
             | > Then comes 2: the first number that is divisible, but
             | only by itself and the indivisible one.
             | 
             | This does hold in the ring Z. In the ring Z[i], 2 =
             | (1+i)*(1-i), and the two factors are prime elements.
        
           | brennopost wrote:
           | It's actually the least odd prime
        
           | chrismcb wrote:
           | It isn't odd at all! And that I'm being pendantic. But you
           | can't say it is very odd, and then I'm the next sentence day
           | "for every odd prime..."
        
       | wesselbindt wrote:
       | If 1 is prime, then the fundamental theorem of arithmetic goes
       | from "every positive integer can be written as a product* of
       | primes in one and only one way" to "every positive integer can be
       | written as a product of primes greater than 1 in one and only one
       | way". Doesn't quite have the same ring to it. So just from an
       | aesthetic perspective, no I'd rather 1 isn't a prime number.
       | 
       | * empty products being 1 of course
        
         | apetresc wrote:
         | Not just that one; practically every useful theorem about
         | primes would have to be rewritten to "if p is a prime other
         | than 1".
        
         | SketchySeaBeast wrote:
         | Isn't "every positive integer can be written as a product of
         | primes greater than 1 in one and only one way" incorrect? A
         | prime number is a only product of itself * 1, isn't it?
        
           | wesselbindt wrote:
           | 1 is not greater than 1, and a product of one prime is still
           | a product of primes
        
             | SketchySeaBeast wrote:
             | Yeah, I didn't understand you can have a product of a
             | single number.
        
           | jdoliner wrote:
           | Mathematicians generally feel that a single number qualifies
           | as a "product of 1 number." So 7 can be written as just 7
           | which is still considered a product of prime(s). This is
           | purely a convention thing to make it so theorems can be
           | stated more succinctly, as with not counting 1 as prime.
        
             | SketchySeaBeast wrote:
             | Ah, OK, thank you.
        
         | laweijfmvo wrote:
         | i remember something from math class about "1" and "prime"
         | being special cases of "units" and "irreducible" (?) that made
         | me think these kinds of definitions are much more complicated
         | than we want them to be regardless.
        
           | wesselbindt wrote:
           | The first part of your comment is completely correct. The
           | latter is a matter of taste, of course. I think the main
           | thing that can be said for a lot of the definitions we have
           | in algebra is that the ones we're using are the ones that
           | stood the test of time because they turned out to be useful.
           | The distinction between invertible elements (units) and
           | irreducible elements, while complicated, also gave us a
           | conceptual framework allowing us to prove lots of interesting
           | and useful theorems.
        
         | tshaddox wrote:
         | It seems a little inconvenient to require acceptance that empty
         | products equal 1, since that is also slightly subtle and
         | deserving of its own explanation of mathematical terminology.
         | 
         | Of course, I generally hear the fundamental theorem of
         | arithmetic phrased as "every integer greater than one..." which
         | is making its own little special case for the number 1.
        
           | feoren wrote:
           | >It seems a little inconvenient to require acceptance that
           | empty products equal 1
           | 
           | Only the contrary: it is extremely inconvenient to _not_
           | allow the product of an empty sequence of numbers to equal 1.
           | The sum of an empty sequence is 0. The Baz of an empty
           | sequence of numbers, for any monoid Baz, is the identity
           | element of that monoid. Any other convention is going to be
           | very painful and full of its own exceptions.
           | 
           | There are no exceptions to any rules here. 1 is not prime.
           | Every positive integer can be expressed as the unique product
           | of powers of primes. 1's expression is [], or 0000..., or
           | [?].
        
           | wesselbindt wrote:
           | Any convention comes with the inconvenience of definition and
           | explanation. So to call the convention that the empty product
           | equals 1 based on that alone seems a bit unfair. The reason
           | the mathematical community has adopted this convention is
           | because it makes a lot of proofs and theorems a bit easier to
           | state. So yes, you lose a bit of convenience in one spot, and
           | gain a bit in a whole bunch of spots.
           | 
           | And note that this convention is not at all required for the
           | point I'm making regarding prime numbers. As you say
           | yourself, restrict the theorem to integers greater than 1,
           | and you can forget about empty products (and it is still
           | easier to state if 1 is not prime (which it isn't)).
        
       | dullcrisp wrote:
       | This is like a "do arrays start at 0 or 1" question, except as
       | they mention, algebraic number theory pretty much settles it.
       | Whether 0 is a natural number though is still open for
       | bikeshedding.
        
         | fpoling wrote:
         | I always thought that 0-based indexes were superior until few
         | years ago I needed to deal with Fortran code and I realized
         | that 1-based arrays allowed to use 0 as a non-existing index or
         | sentinel, not size_t(-1) hack as found in C/C++. Like the
         | article explains, depending on the domain one or the other
         | convention can be advantageous.
         | 
         | And then C/C++ compilers are subtly inconsistent. If 0 is valid
         | index, then null should correspond to uintptr_t(-1), not 0
         | address. That lead to non-trivial complication in OS
         | implementations to make sure that the address 0 is not mapped
         | as from hardware point of view 0 is absolutely normal address.
        
           | IshKebab wrote:
           | No, this article makes the case _for_ 0-based indexing. Let
           | 's ignore the reality that computer fundamentally use 0-based
           | indexes... The article says 1 is not prime because maths gets
           | more awkward if it is.
           | 
           | In the same way we index from 0 because indexing gets way
           | more awkward if we index from 1.
           | 
           | In-band sentinels are both quite rare, and also equally
           | convenient with -1 or 0. In fact I would say -1 is a bit more
           | elegant because sometimes you need multiple sentinel values
           | and then you can easily use -2 (what are you going to use 0
           | and 1 and then index from 2?).
           | 
           | The more common operations are things like indexing into
           | flattened multidimensional arrays, or dealing with intervals,
           | which are both way more elegant with 0-based indexing.
           | 
           | 0 is a valid index into an array. It's even a valid index
           | into global memory in some environments. Not mapping memory
           | to address 0 is completely trivial. I'm not sure what non-
           | trivial complications you're thinking of.
        
       | cogman10 wrote:
       | I'm sure it depends on the definition of prime. I've always been
       | partial to "Any integer with exactly 2 divisors". Short, simple,
       | and it excludes 1 and negative numbers.
        
         | JadeNB wrote:
         | > I'm sure it depends on the definition of prime. I've always
         | been partial to "Any integer with exactly 2 divisors". Short,
         | simple, and it excludes 1 and negative numbers.
         | 
         | Depending on your definition of divisor, it excludes everything
         | _except_ 1 and -1, whose two integer divisors are 1 and -1. But
         | then, if you specify that  "divisor" means "positive integer
         | divisor", it no longer automatically excludes the negative
         | numbers, since the two positive integer divisors of -2 are 1
         | and 2. (Incidentally, plenty of algebraists, myself included,
         | are perfectly comfortable with including -2 as a prime.)
        
       | mathemadigal wrote:
       | I think we'll need to wait for an answer to if there is a prime
       | number generating function.
       | 
       | At that time we can determine if 1 is prime.
       | 
       | If it's found that Eratosthenes' sieve is the only prime
       | generating function then we have our answer.
        
         | dullcrisp wrote:
         | We'd have our answer in what way?
        
           | mathemadigal wrote:
           | I apologize for the ambiguity, it's apparent when you've read
           | the article as it addresses this specific point.
           | 
           | Namely, if the sieve is the only generating function for all
           | of the primes then 1 would need to be omitted as prime as
           | removing its factors would remove every number, thus failing
           | to generate the list of primes.
        
           | fhars wrote:
           | If you treat one as prime number when running the sieve
           | algorithm, one is the only prime number that remains after
           | you have removes all its multiples from the list of candidate
           | numbers.
        
       | SkySkimmer wrote:
       | Since 2 is prime 1, wouldn't it be more symmetric if 1 was prime
       | 2?
        
         | bluGill wrote:
         | What makes you think two is prime? Not everyone would agree
         | with that statement as the artical points out.
        
           | spiderice wrote:
           | The article states that historically Nicomachus of Gerasa
           | didn't consider 2 a prime, in like 100 AD.
           | 
           | Nowadays 2 is considered prime. Seems silly to question why
           | someone is claiming 2 is prime if that is how it is defined
           | in modern day.
           | 
           | > What makes you think two is prime
           | 
           | The current mathematical definition of a prime number
        
         | dullcrisp wrote:
         | Technically yes
        
       | munchler wrote:
       | Other good nerd-sniping math questions:
       | 
       | 0^0 = 1? Yes, it's simpler that way.
       | 
       | 0! = 1? Yes, it's simpler that way.
       | 
       | 0/0 = [?]? No, it's undefined.
       | 
       | 0.9999... = 1? Yes, it's just two ways of expressing the same
       | number.
       | 
       | 1+2+3+... = -1/12? No, but if it did have a finite value, that's
       | what it would be.
        
         | rvba wrote:
         | If we try to define division by zero, shouldnt 0/0 be 1?
         | 
         | Or even more abstract "every element on y". Which I think could
         | sort of work
        
         | meroes wrote:
         | 0^0 got Gemini 2.5 pro the other day for me. It claimed all
         | indeterminate forms (in the context of limits) are also
         | undefined as a response to a prompt dividing by zero. 0^0 is
         | the most obvious exception, it's typically defined as =1 as you
         | said.
        
       | robinhouston wrote:
       | Another very interesting article on the primality of 1 is Evelyn
       | Lamb's _Why isn't 1 a prime number?_
       | (https://www.scientificamerican.com/blog/roots-of-unity/why-i...)
       | 
       | A slightly facetious answer might be that this is the wrong
       | question to ask, and the right question is: when did 1 stop being
       | a prime number? To which the answer is: some time between 1933
       | (when the 6th edition of Hardy's _A course in pure mathematics_
       | was published) and 1938 (when the 7th edition was published).
        
       | ks2048 wrote:
       | Can we declare 2 composite? Kind of annoying to have an even
       | number in there.
        
         | dullcrisp wrote:
         | It's composite in the Gaussian integers, maybe that helps.
        
         | lern_too_spel wrote:
         | Only if we can declare 3 composite because it's annoying to
         | have a number divisible by 3 in the primes, and so on for the
         | rest of them.
        
         | vikingerik wrote:
         | 2 being the only even prime isn't really anything fundamentally
         | weird. Every prime is the only divisible-by-that-number prime.
         | 2 has nothing unique about that.
         | 
         | We only notice the case for 2 because our human languages
         | happen to define divisible-by-2 as a word and concept. If our
         | languages called divisible-by-3 "treven" or something like
         | that, we'd think it weird that 3 was the only treven prime.
        
       | jconder wrote:
       | Odd to see an article about prime numbers with no mention of
       | ideals. If (1) was a prime ideal then it would be the only non-
       | maximal prime ideal. And it would be the only closed point in
       | Spec(Z)...
        
       | feoren wrote:
       | All models are wrong, but some models are useful. It's not useful
       | to consider 1 prime, so we don't. You're free to invent a new
       | model of math where 1 is prime and see where it takes you; nobody
       | will be offended. This happens all the time: "but what if we
       | _could_ take the square root of a negative number? What then? ",
       | etc. 99% of the time, this leads to a theory that is provably
       | inconsistent and therefore useless. Out of the remaining 1%,
       | about 99% of the time it leads to a mathematics that is simply
       | less useful than what we have now. So it goes with making 1
       | prime. Out of the remaining cases, about 99% of those turn out to
       | be identical to an already existing mathematical theory, which is
       | interesting (and possibly publishable), but not hugely useful.
       | But about 1% of 1% of 1% of the time, these exercises result in
       | actual new math that can tell us new things about reality and
       | solve problems we couldn't solve before.
       | 
       | This is not one of those times.
        
         | rtkwe wrote:
         | I've always wondered what actually breaks if 1 is prime or
         | conversely what defining 1 as not prime gives us. Got just far
         | enough into my math degree before switching to CompSci to stay
         | of of universities the rest of my life to want to know.
        
           | samf wrote:
           | Some examples are in these comments, e.g. the Fundamental
           | Theorem of Arithmetic. The Sieve of Eratosthenes is an
           | amusing outcome, where 1 is the only prime if you take it
           | literally.
           | 
           | But also mentioned elsewhere in the thread: if we declared 1
           | to be a prime, then many (I daresay "most") of our theorems
           | would have to change "prime number" to "prime number greater
           | than one".
        
           | feoren wrote:
           | The biggest problem is that you lose unique prime
           | factorization. With prime factorization, I get a unique
           | representation of every positive integer. Let's consider a
           | way to write positive integers in "base prime", similar to
           | base 10 or base 2. I'll start counting from 1 and write
           | numbers as a tuple of prime factors. Similar to base 10,
           | "base prime" has an infinite set of 0s that we're leaving out
           | for brevity (e.g. 19 = 0000019), although it's on the right
           | side instead of the left.                   1 = () = (0, 0,
           | 0, 0, 0, ...)         2 = (1) = (1, 0, 0, 0, 0, ...)
           | 3 = (0, 1)         4 = (2)         5 = (0, 0, 1)         6 =
           | (1, 1)         7 = (0, 0, 0, 1)         8 = (3)         9 =
           | (0, 2)         10 = (1, 0, 1)
           | 
           | The _i_ th position in every tuple is the power of the _i_ th
           | prime in the factorization of that number. So 10 = (1, 0, 1)
           | = 2^1 * 3^0 * 5^1. 84 would be (2, 1, 0, 1) = 2^2 * 3^1 * 5^0
           | * 7^1. If we have unique factorization, there is exactly one
           | way to write every positive integer like this, and there are
           | many insights we can gain from this factorization. If 1 is
           | prime, then we can write 6 = 1^257 * 2^1 * 3^1, or any other
           | power of 1 we like. We just gain nothing from it.
           | 
           | There are often many equivalent ways to define any
           | mathematical object, and I'm sure there are plenty of ways to
           | define a prime number other than "its only factors are itself
           | and 1". These other definitions are likely to obviously
           | exclude 1. One obvious one is the set of basis coordinates in
           | this "unique factorization" space that I just laid out here.
           | And we're never really excluding or making a special case for
           | 1, because 1's factorization is simply the absence of any
           | powers -- empty set, all 0s, whatever you want to call it.
           | 
           | Keep in mind that "unique factorization" turns out to be very
           | interesting in all sorts of other mathematical objects:
           | rings, polynomials, symmetries, vector spaces, etc. They
           | often have their own notion of "prime" or "primitive" objects
           | and the correspondence with integer-primes is much cleaner if
           | we don't consider 1 prime.
        
         | samf wrote:
         | This is the best answer.
         | 
         | We could declare 4 to be a prime number, and keep the rest of
         | the definition the same. Instead of just saying "no", you could
         | ask, "okay, what would that do for us?" If there isn't a good
         | answer, then what's the point? And usually, you're not in the
         | 1% of 1% of 1%.
        
       | alganet wrote:
       | "Only divisible by itself and 1" is a darn elegant definition.
       | 
       | 1, 2 and 3 are kind of special to me. In prime distribution
       | studies, I discovered that they are special. It gets easier for
       | some things if you consider primes only higher or equal to 5.
       | Explaining distribution gets easier, some proofs become more
       | obvious if you do that (tiny example: draw a ulam-like spiral
       | around the numbers of an analog clock. 2 and 3 will become
       | outliers and a distribution will reveal itself along the 1, 5, 7
       | and 11 diagonals).
       | 
       | Anyways, "only divisible by itself and 1" is a darn elegant
       | definition.
        
         | mikepurvis wrote:
         | The 1 exception matters as well for prime mutuality, like X and
         | Y share no common factors _other than 1 of course, sigh_.
        
           | alganet wrote:
           | I see 1 as mostly an anchor. However, my thing is not about
           | working out axioms and formal mathematics. I do some
           | visualizations that can help demonstrate aspects of prime
           | distribution.
           | 
           | I am fascinated by geometric proofs though. The clock thing
           | is just a riff on Ulam's work. I believe there is more to it
           | if one sees it as a geometric object and not just a
           | visualization drawing. I could be wrong though.
        
         | teytra wrote:
         | When I was younger I had a period I often was thinking about
         | prime numbers (before I got old and started thinking about the
         | Roman Empire).
         | 
         | I noticed the same as you, and IIRC the (some?) ancient greeks
         | actually had an idea about 1 as not a number, but the unit that
         | numbers were made of. So in a different class.
         | 
         | 2 and 3 are also different, or rather all other primes from 5
         | and up are neighbours to a multiple of 6, (though not all such
         | neighbours are primes of course).
         | 
         | In base-6 all those primes end in 5 or 1. What is the
         | significance? I don't know. I remember that I started thinking
         | that 2*3=6, maybe the sequence of primes is a result of the
         | intertwining of numbersystems in multiple dimensions or
         | whatever? Then I started thinking about the late republic
         | instead. ;)
        
           | alganet wrote:
           | If you work not only the primes, but also the modulus
           | function value of each non-prime, things get even more
           | interesting than thinking of base changes! To me, it reveals
           | much more.
        
             | alganet wrote:
             | Also, rearrangements.
             | 
             | In two dimensions is easier.
             | 
             | I cannot rearrange one pebble.
             | 
             | I can rearrange two or three pebbles equidistant from each
             | other in just one distinct way (inverting the position of a
             | neighbouring pebble).
             | 
             | And so on...
             | 
             | There are many ways to think of natural numbers without
             | actual numbers.
        
       | scythe wrote:
       | 1 is not a prime number because it would ruin the Euler product
       | formula for the Riemann zeta function.
        
       | EnPissant wrote:
       | In programmer terms, imagine you had to define the product
       | function in Python. The most natural way to write it is:
       | >>> def product(ints):         ...   result = 1         ...   for
       | int in ints:         ...     result *= int         ...   return
       | result
       | 
       | In which case there is no need to make 1 a prime as you already
       | have:                   >>> product([])         1
        
       | 2OEH8eoCRo0 wrote:
       | 1 x 1 = 1
       | 
       | 1 x 1 x 1 = 1
       | 
       | ...
       | 
       | Not prime!
        
       | pwdisswordfishz wrote:
       | > One way in which 1 "quacks" like a prime is the way it accords
       | with Euclid's Lemma, the principle that asserts that if p is a
       | prime, then whenever the product of two integers is divisible by
       | p, one of the two numbers or both must be divisible by p.
       | 
       | This is debunked by
       | https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/too+simple+to+be+simple#relati...
        
       | pabenson wrote:
       | Since 1 is the multiplicative identity (x * 1 = x for any x in
       | the set) and any definition of "prime" needs to use
       | multiplication then one way or another 1 is going to be special
       | when talking about primes whether it is included in the set of
       | prime numbers or not. You can't avoid 1 being "special"
        
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