[HN Gopher] A cute proof that makes e natural
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       A cute proof that makes e natural
        
       Author : georgecmu
       Score  : 36 points
       Date   : 2025-04-17 16:19 UTC (6 hours ago)
        
 (HTM) web link (www.poshenloh.com)
 (TXT) w3m dump (www.poshenloh.com)
        
       | analog31 wrote:
       | It also makes f flat.
        
         | johnp314 wrote:
         | At first your comment fell flat with me but then I realized it
         | was pretty sharp. You are a natural.
         | 
         | But the cute proof was pretty cute. I recommend calc teachers
         | try to work it into their lecture on e.
        
       | btilly wrote:
       | While this may convince students, you haven't actually prove that
       | any exponential function has a slope. The usual presentation
       | doesn't even demonstrate that such functions are defined at
       | irrational numbers.
       | 
       | That said, it is worthwhile to go through the algebra exercise to
       | convince yourself that, for large n, (1+x/n)^n expands out to
       | approximately 1 + x + x^2/2 + x^3/6 + ...
       | 
       | Hint. The x^k terms come out to (x/n)^k (n choose k). This will
       | turn out to be x^k/k! + O(x^k/n). As n goes to infinity, the
       | error term drops out, and we're just left with the series that we
       | want.
        
         | ogogmad wrote:
         | > for large n, (1+x/n)^n expands out to approximately 1 + x +
         | x^2/2 + x^3/6 + ...
         | 
         | The rigorous version of this argument uses the Dominated
         | Convergence Theorem in the special case of infinite series.
        
           | btilly wrote:
           | There are several ways to make this rigorous.
           | 
           | An explicit epsilon-delta style proof is not that hard to
           | produce, it's just a little messy. What you have to do is,
           | for a given x and 0<e, pick N large enough that you can bound
           | the tail after x^N/N! onwards with a geometric series adding
           | up to at most e/2. Now pick n large enough enough that the
           | sum of errors in the terms up to N is also bounded by e/2.
           | From that n on, (1+x/n)^n is within e of the power series for
           | e^x.
        
       | dawnofdusk wrote:
       | The arxiv preprint linked in this is _really_ good. I 'm American
       | so I got my education on e from the compound interest limit which
       | isn't natural at all, as Loh points out. Why should it matter how
       | many times I "split up" my compounding?
       | 
       | IMO exponentials should just not be taught at all without basic
       | notions of calculus (slopes of tangent lines suffice, as Po Shen
       | Loh does here). The geometric intuition matters more than how to
       | algebraically manipulate derivatives. The differential equation
       | is by far the most natural approach, and it deserves to be taught
       | earlier to students as is done apparently in France and Russia.
        
         | munchler wrote:
         | > Why should it matter how many times I "split up" my
         | compounding
         | 
         | It doesn't, but the limit as the number of splits approaches
         | infinity is obviously an interesting (i.e. "natural") result.
         | 
         | The perimeter of a polygon with an infinite number of sides is
         | also interesting for the same reason.
        
           | ogogmad wrote:
           | Looking at it in terms of compound interest seems random.
           | That said, I think the expression lim((1+x/n)^n) is better
           | motivated within Lie theory, since every Lie group admits a
           | faithful linear representation in which the expression
           | lim((1+x/n)^n) makes sense (even if infinite-dimensional
           | Hilbert spaces might be needed, as in the metaplectic group).
           | Then the subexpression 1+x/n approximates a tangent vector to
           | 1.
        
       | LegionMammal978 wrote:
       | How my high-school calculus textbook did it was to first define
       | ln(x) so that ln(1) = 0 and d/dx ln(x) = 1/x, then take exp(x) as
       | the inverse function of ln(x), and finally set _e_ = exp(1). It
       | 's definitely a bit different from the exp-first formulation, but
       | it does do a good job connecting the natural logarithm to a
       | natural definition. (It's an interesting exercise to show, using
       | only limit identities and algebraic manipulation, that this is
       | equivalent to the usual compound-interest version of _e_.)
        
         | ogogmad wrote:
         | I think this approach is the most logically "efficient". You
         | can phrase it as defining ln(x) to be the integral of 1/t from
         | 1 to x. Maybe not the most intuitive, though.
         | 
         | Interestingly, a similar approach gives the shortest proof that
         | exp(x) and ln(x) are computable functions (since integration is
         | a computable functional, thanks to interval arithmetic), and
         | therefore that e = exp(1) is a computable real number.
        
           | LegionMammal978 wrote:
           | Yeah, the hairiest part is probably the existence and
           | uniqueness of the antiderivative, followed by the existence
           | of an inverse for exp(1). In fact, I can't quite recall
           | whether the book defined it as a Riemann integral or an
           | antiderivative, but of course it had a statement of the FTC
           | which would connect the two. (It was just a high-school
           | textbook, so it tended to gloss over the finer points of
           | existence and uniqueness.)
        
         | jcranmer wrote:
         | That's how my textbook did it as well (well, it defined e as
         | ln(e) = 1, but only because it introduced e before exp).
         | 
         | The problem with this approach is that, since we were already
         | introduced to exponents and logarithms in algebra but via
         | different definitions, it always left this unanswered question
         | in my head about how we knew these two definitions were the
         | same, since everyone quickly glossed over that fact.
        
           | ogogmad wrote:
           | Did you eventually realise that the expression a^b should be
           | understood to "really" mean exp(b * ln(a)), at least in the
           | case that b might not be an integer?
           | 
           | I think even in complex analysis, the above definition a^b :=
           | exp(b ln(a)) makes sense, since the function ln() admits a
           | Riemann surface as its natural domain and the usual complex
           | numbers as its codomain.
           | 
           | [EDIT] Addressing your response:
           | 
           | > Calculus glosses over the case when a is negative
           | 
           | The Riemann surface approach mostly rescues this. When "a" is
           | negative, and b is 1/3 (for instance), choose "a" = (r,
           | theta) = (|a|, 3 pi). This gives ln(a) = ln |a| + i (3 pi).
           | Then a^b = exp((|a| + i 3 pi) / 3) = exp(ln |a|/3 + i pi) =
           | -|a|^(1/3), as desired.
           | 
           | Notice though that I chose to represent "a" using theta=3pi,
           | instead of let's say 5pi.
        
             | jcranmer wrote:
             | The problem is a^b := exp(b ln(a)) sort of breaks down when
             | a is negative, which is a case that is covered in algebra
             | class but glossed over in calculus.
        
           | LegionMammal978 wrote:
           | I suppose the method would be to derive ln(xy) = ln(x) +
           | ln(y) and the corresponding exp(x + y) = exp(x)exp(y), then
           | see how this lets exp(y ln(x)) coincide with repeated
           | multiplication for integer y. Connecting this to the series
           | definition of exp(x) would also take some work, but my
           | textbook wasn't very big on series definitions in general.
        
       | ogogmad wrote:
       | Tangential fact (har har): The Taylor series for e^x, combined
       | with the uniqueness of representing a real number in base-
       | factorial, immediately shows that e is irrational.
        
       | nathan_douglas wrote:
       | That was lovely; I really enjoyed it. Thank you.
        
       | russellbeattie wrote:
       | [delayed]
        
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