[HN Gopher] Euclid's Proof that [?]2 is Irrational
       ___________________________________________________________________
        
       Euclid's Proof that [?]2 is Irrational
        
       Author : thunderbong
       Score  : 155 points
       Date   : 2024-08-21 20:39 UTC (20 hours ago)
        
 (HTM) web link (www.mathsisfun.com)
 (TXT) w3m dump (www.mathsisfun.com)
        
       | taeric wrote:
       | I thought this was basically the same proof that got someone
       | killed in the Pythagorean cult.
       | https://www.scientificamerican.com/article/how-a-secret-soci...
       | shows it was a different proof in a similar vein, though. Fun
       | times.
        
         | omoikane wrote:
         | Another version of the same story:
         | 
         | https://existentialcomics.com/comic/189
         | 
         | See also:
         | https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hippasus#Irrational_numbers
        
       | cornstalks wrote:
       | > _Likewise if a number is even and is a square of an integer,
       | then its square root must be even._
       | 
       | The proof would be more compelling if this was proven instead of
       | being taken as an obvious fact.
        
         | colechristensen wrote:
         | It is really trivial though.
        
         | DiggyJohnson wrote:
         | Even x Even results Even
         | 
         | Even x Odd irrelevant if squaring
         | 
         | Odd x Odd results Odd
        
           | bsaul wrote:
           | except sqrt(2) x sqrt(2) is even ( i know we're talking about
           | numbers in Z in this case, and sqrt(2) definitely isn't in Z,
           | but still)
           | 
           | Which made me wonder if the original sentence isn't already
           | assuming something about sqrt(2) and even/odd properties.
           | 
           | (i stopped at the same step as OP wondering if this is as
           | trivial as it seemed)
        
           | lIl-IIIl wrote:
           | >Odd x Odd results Odd
           | 
           | This isn't obvious and can't be taken for granted. The
           | explanation posted above (2k+1)^2 by Smaug123 explains this
           | part.
        
         | tines wrote:
         | Let n = 2r, and n = xx for some integers r and x, because n is
         | even and n is a square. So xx = 2r.
         | 
         | Because of the fundamental theorem of arithmetic, we know that
         | x must be representable as the product of a unique string of
         | prime numbers.
         | 
         | Because 2 is prime, then since xx = 2r, there must be a 2 in
         | the string of primes for xx.
         | 
         | But since 2 is prime, it must be in x as well, because a prime
         | cannot come out of nowhere. In other words, if there is a given
         | prime P in xx, there must be at least two P in xx, because
         | there was at least one in x, and the number of each one got
         | doubled in xx.
         | 
         | Therefore xx = 2r = 2*2*y = 4y for some integer y.
         | 
         | Therefore n = 4y and sqrt(n) = sqrt(4y) = sqrt(4)sqrt(y) =
         | 2sqrt(y) which is an even number.
         | 
         | Therefore sqrt(n) is even.
        
           | Smaug123 wrote:
           | FTA is massive overkill. For every number n, either n can be
           | expressed as 2k for some k, or 2k+1 for some k, but not both
           | (proof: by induction); in particular the square root can too.
           | If the square root is (2k+1), then the square is 4k^2 + 4k +
           | 1 = 2(2k^2+2k) + 1, which is by definition odd, not even as
           | we supposed.
        
             | tines wrote:
             | True, but the FTA proof is just really intuitive for me and
             | I like it.
        
               | Hackbraten wrote:
               | Thanks for the proof, it was fun to follow, and I agree
               | that it's quite intuitive.
               | 
               | I think that it would be helpful to mention why sqrt(y)
               | must be an integer.
               | 
               | (I know that it is, but it also feels a bit glossed over,
               | given that all the other steps of the proof were
               | explained so thoroughly.)
        
             | thaumasiotes wrote:
             | The FTA proof is the one that's obvious, though. If it's
             | really easy to do something using a basic tool, why worry
             | that the basic tool is complex to describe?
        
       | abstractbill wrote:
       | These days I much prefer a different proof of this fact,
       | attributed to Conway: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=wNOtOPjaLZs
       | -- I'm actually about half-way through teaching it to my kids
       | right now!
        
         | scythmic_waves wrote:
         | I hadn't seen this before, it's fantastic! Thanks!
        
         | red_trumpet wrote:
         | The cool thing is this argument immediately generalizes to
         | zeroes of monic polynomials with integer coefficients, i.e. x^n
         | + a_0 x^{n-1} + ... + a_n.
         | 
         | In commutative algebra one says "the ring Z is integrally
         | closed in its field of fractions Q", or short "Z is normal".[1]
         | 
         | [1]
         | https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Integrally_closed_domain#Norma...
        
       | Smaug123 wrote:
       | 1) it's not a proof by contradiction, it's a proof of a negation
       | :grump:
       | 
       | 2) I am not a fan of this phrasing "we can't simplify forever".
       | Why can't we? It's obvious if you phrase it in the usual way as
       | "the denominator is strictly smaller than it was before", but the
       | "simplify" operation is kind of complex! They don't even mention
       | "decreasing" until the very final Note box where they say offhand
       | that actually it's an infinite descent (which is a critical part
       | of the proof they've otherwise handwaved).
        
         | thaumasiotes wrote:
         | > 1) it's not a proof by contradiction, it's a proof of a
         | negation :grump:
         | 
         | I don't get your complaint. It is a proof of a negation, yes,
         | the conclusion is that [?]2 [?] Q.
         | 
         | But the proof is done by contradiction; "it's not a proof by
         | contradiction" is flat-out false. "Proof by contradiction"
         | describes the method of the proof, and "proof of a negation"
         | describes its conclusion, which is why one of those phrases
         | uses _by_ and the other one uses _of_.
        
           | Smaug123 wrote:
           | https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proof_by_contradiction,
           | https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/proof+by+contradiction, https:/
           | /web.stanford.edu/class/cs103/guide_to_proofs#proof-b... all
           | agree (the first three things that came up when I googled for
           | "proof by contradiction"): a proof by contradiction is
           | specifically a proof which shows that P is not false, and
           | concludes that it is true. There is already a perfectly
           | cromulent term for proofs of negations: "refutation by
           | contradiction"
           | (https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/refutation+by+contradiction),
           | which admittedly nlab says it prefers to its other name
           | "proof of negation".
        
             | renewiltord wrote:
             | The two seem isomorphic. Just sub R for \not P. Doesn't
             | seem to change anything interesting about the proof
             | structure.
        
               | Smaug123 wrote:
               | As I said, according to the three sources above, which
               | are the first sources I clicked on which didn't seem like
               | blogspam, the phrase "proof by contradiction" is a term
               | of art which means "uses the law of excluded middle to
               | conclude the truth of a statement given a proof that its
               | negation is false". It may be _unfortunate_ that the
               | mathematical world has standardised on the phrase  "proof
               | by contradiction" for this, but it _has_ standardised on
               | that phrase!
        
               | wazdra wrote:
               | > but it _has_ standardised on that phrase!
               | 
               | To me, the only formal distinction you can make between
               | the two lies in the use of the excluded middle. However,
               | this distinction has not standardised in mathematics, as
               | many mathematicians simply do _not_ care for
               | intuitionistic logic.
               | 
               | Such a mathematician could see the above proof as: I want
               | to show !P by contradiction. Therefore I assume !(!P)
               | which is just P to me (the unintuitionistic mathematician
               | has just used the excluded middle, without really
               | caring). I derive a contradiction. Therefore !P holds.
               | 
               | While I personally enjoy the kind of subtleties that can
               | be thought of about mathematical reasoning, I also think
               | the rant-train on contradiction vs negation must stop.
               | You are expecting a consensus from the wrong community.
        
               | thaumasiotes wrote:
               | > To me, the only formal distinction you can make between
               | the two lies in the use of the excluded middle.
               | 
               | It's much dumber than that, since he's invoking the law
               | of the excluded middle to use contradiction at all.
        
               | Smaug123 wrote:
               | Could you please explain this? Clearly we both understand
               | something _completely different_ by either the term
               | "excluded middle" or "contradiction". Note that Euclid's
               | proof is intuitionistically valid, so it can't use
               | excluded middle.
        
               | thaumasiotes wrote:
               | >>>> As I said, according to the three sources above,
               | which are the first sources I clicked on which didn't
               | seem like blogspam, the phrase "proof by contradiction"
               | is a term of art which means " _uses the law of excluded
               | middle_ to conclude the truth of a statement given a
               | proof that its negation is false "
               | 
               | (quote from you; my emphasis)
        
               | wazdra wrote:
               | excluded middle: the logical axiom that, for any
               | proposition P, (P v !P) is a tautology/valid/always
               | holds.
               | 
               | contradiction: a proof of [?]. The definition of [?] does
               | not matter (it just means false), thanks to the ex falso
               | quodlibet principle.
               | 
               | A proof by contradiction: proving P by showing that (!P
               | -> [?]).
               | 
               | Notice that I haven't defined the ! operator. This is due
               | to the fact that its definition differs between classical
               | logic and intuitionistic logic. Since the intuitionistic
               | definition of !, i.e. "!P" is a short-hand for "P ->
               | [?]", is classically equivalent to the definition of ! in
               | the classical context (!P is the statement "P does not
               | hold"), it makes sense to adopt this definition. The
               | astute reader will notice that, with this definition of
               | !, a proof by contradiction is exactly a proof of !!P,
               | and it happens that !!P -> P is an equivalent formulation
               | of the excluded middle.
               | 
               | Now, back to Euclid's proof. Let P = "[?]2 is rational".
               | We want to show Q = !P. We can do so by contradiction:
               | assume !Q, and derive a contradiction. It *happens* that,
               | when using the scheme of proof by contradiction on a
               | property of the form !A, you can simply rearrange the
               | negations to get rid of the use of the excluded middle.
               | 
               | So, going back to your statement,
               | 
               | >Note that Euclid's proof is intuitionistically valid, so
               | it can't use excluded middle.
               | 
               | Well, whether Euclid's proof is intuitionistically valid
               | is a question of point of view. Historically? I doubt it.
               | I doubt that Euclid gave any kind of thought to whether
               | he used the excluded middle, and probably used it
               | pervasively, as all "classical" mathematicians today.
               | However, I agree that it can be _made_ intuitionistically
               | valid using a purely syntactic rewriting. Said
               | differently, Euclid 's proof does not _rely_ on the
               | excluded middle. This does not mean you cannot _use_ it
               | because that 's how you think or because you prefer it
               | that way. When you see the blow-up of sizes of certain
               | proofs in the non-classical context, you understand why
               | many mathematicians would rather not give a thought to
               | their use of the excluded middle. The same way many
               | people in this thread used the PTA to show that [?]2 is
               | irrational: that's overkill, but they prefer it that way
               | !
        
             | thaumasiotes wrote:
             | > a proof by contradiction is specifically a proof which
             | shows that P is not false, and concludes that it is true.
             | 
             | And this proof matches that description exactly, with P =
             | "[?]2 [?] Q". The only case where these would be different
             | ideas is the case where !!P [?] P.
             | 
             | And of course, that can never happen.
        
               | Smaug123 wrote:
               | Your statement is, I think, being wilfully sloppy.
               | 
               | To quote the outline of the proof: "First Euclid assumed
               | [?]2 was a rational number.". To quote the proof itself:
               | "Euclid's proof starts with the assumption that [?]2 is
               | equal to a rational number p/q.". In two different
               | places, the proof explicitly states that it is showing
               | that "[?]2 in Q" is false. It is _not_ showing that
               | "[?]2 [?] Q" is not false; such a proof would begin
               | "Suppose that it were not the case that [?]2 [?] Q",
               | which is obviously not how the proof starts (and for good
               | reason, because that would be much more confusing).
               | 
               | By all means argue that "nobody cares about excluded
               | middle"! You're probably right, and when I insist that
               | "proof by contradiction" has a meaning that is correctly
               | stated by Wikipedia and the nlab, I'm just like one of
               | the old fogeys complaining about things like "could care
               | less" or "irregardless"! But don't misquote arguments and
               | say that they support your case when they don't.
        
         | LudwigNagasena wrote:
         | It's both a proof by contradiction and a refutation by
         | contradiction because it's the same thing in this context.
         | Positing "P = is rational and !P = is irrational" is as valid
         | as positing "P = is irrational and !P = is rational".
        
           | Smaug123 wrote:
           | No, "is not irrational" isn't the same as "is rational"
           | without excluded middle; that's the whole point. (Equality of
           | real numbers is not computable, so there is nonconstructive
           | content to the implication "if not irrational, then
           | rational".)
           | 
           | (I will retract a whole bunch of my worldview if you can
           | inhabit the type "not-not-rational -> rational" in something
           | like MLTT.)
        
         | ginkoleaf wrote:
         | This distinction is only made by a small number of mostly
         | constructivists. It is not common usage, and most working
         | mathematicians will have no idea what you're talking about.
        
         | thaumasiotes wrote:
         | > They don't even mention "decreasing" until the very final
         | Note box where they say offhand that actually it's an infinite
         | descent (which is a critical part of the proof they've
         | otherwise handwaved).
         | 
         | That isn't actually a critical part of the proof; you can just
         | assume that your initial two integers are relatively prime and
         | then derive a contradiction directly.
        
           | Smaug123 wrote:
           | Then why didn't they! Of course the proof can be fixed, we
           | all know sqrt(2) is irrational, but why get _so close_ to
           | proving it and then just not finish the job?
        
       | Jun8 wrote:
       | If you know a child in middle school, this is a great way to get
       | them started on "cool mathematical thinking", which I called
       | "Mathematia" when I discussed with my son when he was young (to
       | distinguish from the horrible Math being taught in school):
       | 1. Introduce Z & Q - this is easy. Perhaps, fingers and slices of
       | pizza. Now s/he's ready to be as surprised as the members of the
       | Phythagorean cult            2. Go over the classical proof for
       | [?]2 given here. We now have a number that's not in Z or Q!
       | 3. It's one thing to show a result, a very different thing to
       | *grasp* it. Why is (2) a big deal? It smashes the simple notion
       | Greeks had that *any* two lengths (rational numbers) are
       | commensurable, which is a perfectly simple and obvious (and
       | wrong) thing to believe: "Have one stick for one side of a square
       | and another for the diagonal. You cannot cut both sticks into
       | pieces of the same length, no matter what length you choose."
       | *This is amazing*            4. We only discovered one such weird
       | number. Are there others? Motivated by the above, how about
       | checking [?]3. Show that it's weird, too.            5. [?]4 is
       | just 2. How about [?]5? OMG, that's weird, too.            6. So
       | the square root of an integer is either an integer or one of
       | these weird numbers. It cannot be of the general Q form p/q. This
       | is an interesting proof. (While thinking about that with the
       | youngster you can think about another generalization: roots
       | higher than second. Turns out it's true for those, too:
       | https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4467/how-to-prove-if-a-
       | b-in-mathbb-n-then-a1-b-is-an-integer-or-an-irratio            7.
       | How do we work these weird numbers? For example, can we add them
       | up, e.g. [?]2 + [?]3? How do we do that? Is that another weird
       | number or could it ever be an integer? Some facts about these
       | sums are trivial to prove:
       | https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/157245/is-the-sum-and-
       | difference-of-two-irrationals-always-irrational            8.
       | Using the wacky notion of adding two numbers as "mating" you can
       | generally outline some higher algebra concepts, e.g. if a lion
       | mates with a lion the result is always a lion. What if it mates
       | with a tiger? (depends, liger or tigon). Can we think of adding a
       | Q to one of these weird numbers the same way? Such intuitions may
       | be misleading (remember the Greeks?) but are fun.
        
       | glial wrote:
       | Where in Euclid's Elements does this proof appear? I can't seem
       | to find it.
        
         | Smaug123 wrote:
         | Euclid X prop 9.
         | http://aleph0.clarku.edu/~djoyce/java/elements/bookX/propX9....
        
       | nickt wrote:
       | (300 BCE)
        
       | AnotherGoodName wrote:
       | Couldn't you stop the proof at the statement q^2 must equal 2m^2
       | since it's obvious there's no solutions to q^2 = 2m^2.
       | 
       | To explain why it's obvious, squares always have an even number
       | if factors of two (an even multiple of any prime factor since
       | it's a square but just focus in on 2 here for now).
       | 
       | A square times two always has an odd number of factors of 2 since
       | it's the above (an even number of factors of two) plus one more
       | factor.
       | 
       | An odd number of prime factors on one side can't be equal to an
       | even number of factors on the other side. q^2 can never equal
       | 2m^2 for any integer value of a or m. Therefore it's irrational.
       | 
       | This ends the proof much earlier right?
        
         | Smaug123 wrote:
         | Yep, that does work, although it needs a bunch of extra
         | machinery (the fundamental theorem of arithmetic, which
         | guarantees existence and uniqueness of prime factorisation). If
         | you're happy to take that machinery as having already been
         | proved - it's not entirely trivial, and it's definitely not
         | obvious! - then you can indeed stop there.
         | 
         | Why do I claim that it's not obvious? Consider the ring of
         | integers with sqrt(-5): that is, all complex numbers of the
         | form `a + b sqrt(-5)` with a, b integers. This is a ring - it
         | has all the nice additive and multiplicative properties that
         | the integers do - but it _doesn 't_ have unique factorisation,
         | because 6 has two distinct factorisations.
        
           | AnotherGoodName wrote:
           | That's reasonable. I've been taught unique prime
           | factorization is a thing since primary school but never
           | considered the history behind that knowledge. I feel anyone
           | with that basis could reasonably stop at the third line here.
           | In fact they could quickly create a generalization since a^2
           | could clearly never equal b(c^2) unless b was also a square
           | for integer a and c but that obviousness is based on a lot of
           | other knowledge.
        
         | Y_Y wrote:
         | > To explain why it's obvious
         | 
         | Have you considered a career in mathematics?
        
       | wging wrote:
       | It's an interesting exercise to find the right generalization of
       | this proof to sqrt(n) for arbitrary numbers n that are not
       | perfect squares, and for kth roots for m >= 2. I.e. prove that if
       | kth_rt(n) is rational, then n is a perfect kth power (or
       | equivalently, that if n is not a perfect kth power, then
       | kth_rt(n) is irrational).
       | 
       | (I'm talking about adapting the ideas of this divisibility-based
       | proof. abstractbill's post
       | https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=41314547 about Conway's
       | method, https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=wNOtOPjaLZs, is a
       | completely different (and very cool) way to do this that I hadn't
       | seen before today.)
        
         | jfengel wrote:
         | I remember being extremely struck by how general this proof
         | was. In fact it made me suspicious that it would even apply to
         | perfect squares. Running the proof on the square root of 4 took
         | a little while to sink in.
        
           | Smaug123 wrote:
           | (Important thing to do while understanding any theorem! Test
           | the boundaries, discover what happens when you relax every
           | hypothesis.)
        
       | bbno4 wrote:
       | slightly related but mathsisfun is a goated website. one of the
       | all time greats. myself and many other people only got through
       | maths because of this site.
        
       | CaptainNegative wrote:
       | This proof has almost nothing to do with Euclid. The Pythagoreans
       | knew about it more than a century before his birth (Hippasus was
       | apocryphally killed for divulging this proof), and the proof is
       | widely believed to have only been inserted into Elements by
       | others after Euclid's death.
        
         | chx wrote:
         | Yeah, this can't be done in the geometrical way Euclid worked
         | 
         | Mostly because you need the Archimedean property for it which
         | can not be derived from Euclid's axioms.
        
       | kevinventullo wrote:
       | For those who are interested in connections to more advanced
       | mathematics, there is a sense in which [?]2 is still an integer,
       | even though it is irrational. Specifically there is the notion of
       | "algebraic integers", which are the set of all complex numbers
       | expressible as the root of a _monic_ polynomial:
       | x^n + a_{n-1}x^(n-1) + ... + a_1x + a_0.
       | 
       | Here each a_i is a usual integer in Z, and _monic_ refers to the
       | leading coefficient being equal to 1.
       | 
       | It turns out the set of such roots is actually closed under
       | multiplication, addition, and subtraction, and there is even an
       | analogue of prime factorization if you squint. Moreover, the
       | intersection of these "algebraic integers" and the rational
       | numbers Q are exactly the usual integers Z. This is why you
       | sometimes might hear an algebraic number theorist refer to Z as
       | the set of "rational integers".
        
         | gerdesj wrote:
         | Maths is always a bit boggling. You say that root two can be
         | considered an integer despite being irrational.
         | 
         | What does "usual integer" mean?
        
           | kevinventullo wrote:
           | By "usual integer", I mean what people usually refer to as an
           | integer:                 ..., -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, ...
           | 
           | As opposed to "algebraic integer", which is a more general
           | notion.
        
             | p-e-w wrote:
             | If I wasn't familiar with that concept already, then I
             | would probably assume that math is no more rigorous than
             | psychology after encountering this thread.
             | 
             | The exact disciplines are doing themselves a terrible
             | disservice by muddying up established terminology like this
             | (and "algebraic integers" are _far_ from the only such
             | case).
        
               | mananaysiempre wrote:
               | The red herring principle[1] is unfortunately popular
               | enough in mathematical terminology to have a name and a
               | page about it.
               | 
               | Roughly, a fooish bar will frequently be something like a
               | bar except fooish, so not actually a bar. (Algebraic
               | integer, multivalued function, manifold with boundary,
               | etc.) On the other hand, a nonfooish baz when baz is
               | normally fooish often means a not _necessarily_ fooish
               | baz, so a particular one might be fooish but we can't
               | assume that. (Noncommutative ring, nonassociative
               | algebra, the very field of noncommutative geometry, etc.)
               | 
               | [1] https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/red+herring+principle
        
               | RGamma wrote:
               | Ah yes, good ol' clopen sets.
        
               | Someone wrote:
               | > The exact disciplines are doing themselves a terrible
               | disservice by muddying up established terminology like
               | this
               | 
               | So, what term do propose they use for this? "Hutyfreklop"
               | or "gensym_167336871904" would probably be unique, but
               | wouldn't tell anything about the subject itself, "roots
               | of polynomials with integer coefficients and a leading
               | coefficient of one" would get cumbersome soon.
        
               | amelius wrote:
               | Yeah, you might as well call any countable set "integers"
               | because you can find a 1:1 mapping between them. This is
               | silly.
        
               | gjm11 wrote:
               | I don't think that's fair.
               | 
               | Mathematicians pretty reliably say "algebraic integer" or
               | "integer in [some specific class of numbers that has non-
               | rational integers in it]" when they are talking about the
               | broader notion, and if they're doing something where that
               | broader notion is often relevant they will generally say
               | something like "rational integer" when they mean the
               | narrower notion. So in practice there is seldom any
               | confusion.
               | 
               | And algebraic integers really _are_ like ordinary
               | integers in important ways. Inventing a completely new
               | term would not obviously be an improvement.
               | 
               | It's not like this sort of thing is unique to
               | mathematics. Once upon a time a "language" was a thing
               | human beings used to communicate with one another. Then
               | along came "programming languages" which are not
               | languages in that sense. And then things like "hypertext
               | markup language" which isn't a language in the
               | programming sense either.
               | 
               | (Arguably this is partly mathematicians' fault since I
               | think they were the first to use "language" to refer to
               | purely formal constructs. But I think the use of
               | "language" in computing arose mostly by analogy to human
               | languages.)
               | 
               | And it happens plenty outside "the exact disciplines". A
               | republican is someone who favours a mode of government
               | that doesn't have monarchs, but if you call someone a
               | "Republican" in the US you mean something rather more
               | specific and a few "Republicans" would actually quite
               | like a system hard to distinguish from monarchy. A window
               | is a transparent thing placed in a wall to let light in,
               | but a window of opportunity is something quite different.
               | A czar is the absolute ruler of Russia, but when someone
               | says (rightly or wrongly) that Kamala Harris was "border
               | czar" they don't mean _that_. A star is a gigantic ball
               | of stuff undergoing nuclear fusion and producing
               | unimaginable amounts of energy, but even the most
               | impressive rock stars don 't do that, and some people
               | called "rock stars" have never played or sung a note of
               | rock music in their lives.
        
               | skhunted wrote:
               | Terminology is often times used to encapsulate a lot of
               | information in a single word or phrase. It's sort of a
               | compression of information to facilitate communication.
               | Things like "roots of f" is a shorter way to say that:
               | "the set of all x such that f(x) = 0". As you get deeper
               | into a subject the more terminology you encounter. This
               | is why research papers are generally unintelligible to
               | those with no training in the areas that the research is
               | about. To not use terminology would make papers insanely
               | long and far too tedious to read.
        
               | mathgradthrow wrote:
               | This seems a bit harsh. Mathematicians tend to be mostly
               | unambiguous when they write. This isn't even on the same
               | planet as the empirical disciplines.
        
           | empath75 wrote:
           | https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/778004/why-study-
           | in...
           | 
           | There's a good explanation of the motivation for this
           | concept, here.
        
         | cyberax wrote:
         | Perhaps a translation issue?
         | 
         | I've always referred to that set as "algebraic numbers" (
         | https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Algebraic_number ). Since they
         | are equipotent with integers, you _can_ call them that, but
         | it's misleading.
        
           | LegionMammal978 wrote:
           | In general, won't some algebraic numbers' minimal polynomials
           | have a leading coefficient greater than 1, when written with
           | integer coefficients?
        
           | adrian_b wrote:
           | As already mentioned by another poster, algebraic numbers are
           | more general than algebraic integers, because the leading
           | coefficient of the polynomial does not have to be one,
           | similarly to the difference between rational numbers and
           | integer numbers, where for the former the denominator does
           | not have to be one, like for the latter.
        
             | Xerox9213 wrote:
             | Ahh, that would explain why the intersection of algebraic
             | integers and Q is Z. I wasn't convinced of that when I had
             | the notion of algebraic numbers in place of algebraic
             | integers.
             | 
             | I like teaching this kind of stuff to my grade 9 and 10
             | advanced math classes. It's not that hard to understand and
             | yet it gives students a sense of wonder about how math
             | works. I might try to show the grade 10s algebraic integers
             | now.
        
               | kevinventullo wrote:
               | You sound like an amazing teacher :)
        
           | bmacho wrote:
           | No, algebraic integers are a different set than algebraic
           | numbers. (A subset.)
           | 
           | Algebraic integers are much cooler, since there is a number
           | theory on them:
           | https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Algebraic_integer . (And also
           | because the most basic facts about it, like that it forms a
           | ring, are not trivial to prove, that's a good sign for a
           | concept to be cool and useful.)
           | 
           | These two number sets are more or less in a relationship like
           | regular integers (with a number theory), and rational
           | numbers. In fact A = O/Z where A denotes the set of algebraic
           | numbers, O denotes the set of algebraic integers, and Z
           | denotes the set of integers.
        
         | jl6 wrote:
         | Yes, but did God make the algebraic integers? Because this
         | looks suspiciously like the work of man.
        
           | skhunted wrote:
           | This depends on your philosophy of mathematics. If you
           | believe god gave us the nonnegative integers then in a very
           | natural way one is led to the notion of algebraic integers.
           | Whether this would be god's creation or man's creation
           | depends on your view of who gets the credit in such a
           | situation.
        
             | jl6 wrote:
             | I think next time I'd better make the apologies to
             | Kronecker explicit.
        
         | rodric wrote:
         | > the set of such roots is actually closed under
         | multiplication, addition, and subtraction, and there is even an
         | analogue of prime factorization if you squint
         | 
         | I did a maths undergrad, but I don't think I ever studied
         | algebraic integers. That's something I shall have to remedy
         | now, thanks!
        
           | dhosek wrote:
           | If you took abstract algebra (which presumably you did as a
           | math major), you certainly encountered these at least in the
           | exercises as groups of the form _ax_ + _b_ where _x_ is some
           | irrational number (or imaginary) and _a_ and _b_ are integers
           | are a staple of chapter 1-2 proofs. Gaussian integers ( _ai_
           | + _b_ ) are a special case that are loads of fun to play with
           | it. They are not unique factorization domains like the
           | integers (e.g., 5 can be expressed as both 1[?]5 and (1 - 2
           | _i_ )2 where 1, 5 and 1 - 2 _i_ are all irreducible).
        
             | rodric wrote:
             | You are right, of course. Clearly, I have been away from
             | mathematics too long.
        
             | kevinventullo wrote:
             | Nit: while it is not generally the case that rings of
             | algebraic integers must be unique factorization domains, it
             | is the case for Gaussian integers! In your example, 5 is
             | uniquely factorizable up to units as (1-2i)(1+2i).
        
       | dimal wrote:
       | I wish I was taught math like this when I was younger. So much
       | time lost thinking I didn't like math.
        
       | perihelion_zero wrote:
       | tldr version: The numerator must be even and the denominator must
       | be odd. The square of this taken modulo 4 must therefore have
       | numerator = 0 mod 4, denominator = 1 mod 4 (1x1 and -1x-1 both
       | become 1 mod 4). 2 times 1 mod 4 cannot be 0 mod 4. Therefore
       | sqrt(2) cannot be rational.
        
       | t0mek wrote:
       | We can also assume that the p/q=[?]2 is already the simplest form
       | of the fraction, since every fraction must have one, as in the
       | first section of the article.
       | 
       | Then if we figure out that both p and q are even, it means that
       | p/q can be simplified (by dividing p and q by 2), which
       | contradicts the assumption about the simplest form - and we don't
       | need to use the infinite descent.
        
         | vessenes wrote:
         | I was going to say this. The proof, unfortunately, sidelines
         | into some very deep mathematics that it didn't need to. I
         | imagine but don't know for sure that Euclid stopped where you
         | do.
         | 
         | I'm not sure when infinite descent would be considered to have
         | been formally proven to a modern mathematician but I bet it
         | wasn't in Euclid's time!
        
           | red_trumpet wrote:
           | Isn't the proof just claiming that you can't divide an
           | integet infinitely many times by 2, and still expect it to be
           | an integer?
        
           | yuliyp wrote:
           | I think the idea is that any strictly decreasing sequence of
           | positive integers starting at N is a subsequence of (N, N-1,
           | N-2, ..., 1) which has N elements, so any such sequence must
           | have a finite number of elements.
           | 
           | So if you manage to produce an infinite sequence of strictly
           | decreasing positive integers starting at a particular
           | positive integer, then you've reached a contradiction.
        
         | yuliyp wrote:
         | That assumes that every fraction has a unique simplest form.
         | The first section of the article makes no such claims about the
         | existence of a simplest form of fraction. The proof uses just
         | algebraic manipulation, the fact that a sequence of strictly
         | decreasing positive integers is finite in length, and the
         | definition of a rational number (there exist integers p, q (q
         | != 0) such that the number can be expressed as p/q).
        
           | red_trumpet wrote:
           | The article explicitly claims
           | 
           | > Rational numbers or fractions must have a simplest form.
           | 
           | They make no claim about uniqueness, but that is not needed
           | in the argument.
        
       | pavelstoev wrote:
       | that feeling you get when you realize the person who lived ~2300
       | years before you is smarter than you now...
        
       | gigatexal wrote:
       | I really liked the explanation. It's a proof I could actually
       | follow. Kudos to the author and to thunderbong for posting it!
        
       | pfdietz wrote:
       | And then in 1737 Euler (another name starting with Eu, definitely
       | a good name) showed that the constant e is irrational.
       | 
       | His proof exploited the fact that the continued fraction
       | representation of any rational number terminates. The CF
       | representation for e does not.
        
         | rodric wrote:
         | > Eu, definitely a good name
         | 
         | I see what you did there.
        
       | potbelly83 wrote:
       | It would be nice if they described Euclid's argument in its
       | original geometric form rather than converting it back to post
       | 1700 algebra notation.
        
       ___________________________________________________________________
       (page generated 2024-08-22 17:01 UTC)