[HN Gopher] What is the significance of the character "j" at the...
       ___________________________________________________________________
        
       What is the significance of the character "j" at the end of a Roman
       Numeral? (2013)
        
       Author : kamaraju
       Score  : 392 points
       Date   : 2024-07-21 05:31 UTC (17 hours ago)
        
 (HTM) web link (genealogy.stackexchange.com)
 (TXT) w3m dump (genealogy.stackexchange.com)
        
       | nojs wrote:
       | Looks like vim when I forget to map jk to escape.
        
         | petepete wrote:
         | Or when Romans sends smilies with Microsoft Outlook.
        
       | kzrdude wrote:
       | Now I wonder why pharmacists used roman numerals
        
         | kseistrup wrote:
         | They're more difficult to fake.
         | 
         | If the doctor prescribes 10 tablets, the user could be tempted
         | to add a zero and thus get 100 tablets instead of 10. It's more
         | difficult to turn an X into a C.
        
           | af78 wrote:
           | Well, one can turn X into XX or XXX... And handwritten
           | prescriptions have become rare where I live, these days.
        
             | _nalply wrote:
             | And as per the instruction of 1919 "it is customary to draw
             | a line above all letters making up the number, the dots of
             | i and j being put above the line" (in other words, the
             | horizontal line is directly above v, x, c, and so on but
             | between the dot of i and j and the lower part of the
             | letter).
             | 
             | I think this way it is difficult to add more Roman digits
             | like x to fake a higher amount than prescribed.
             | 
             | The letter j seems to be an additional security because i
             | as a letter is narrow and one could perhaps squash in one
             | or two more i's. The instruction also mentions that the
             | number of dots is important, if the number of i and j is
             | not the same as the number of dots above the line, the
             | apothecary should assume an error.
        
               | g15jv2dp wrote:
               | What prevented someone from just extending the line?
        
               | _nalply wrote:
               | > I think this way it is difficult [...]
               | 
               | It's just difficult, but not impossible.
               | 
               | This said, such tampering is in my jurisdiction
               | punishable by law (Art. 251 Forgery of a document), see h
               | ttps://www.fedlex.admin.ch/eli/cc/54/757_781_799/en#art_2
               | 51
               | 
               | I am sure in Common Law jurisdiction forgery of documents
               | is also punishable.
               | 
               | So such things are defended by a two-pronged approach:
               | Make it difficult and forbid it.
        
               | kazinator wrote:
               | Someone forging a number is already going to the trouble
               | to find seclusion so that they are unobserved, and to try
               | to match the writing instrument (color, stroke and
               | texture) and the handwriting of the existing digits.
               | 
               | A horizontal square bracket would have been a more
               | effective deterrent than just a line.
        
               | _nalply wrote:
               | So find a time machine and travel back and tell the
               | people of your superior solution.
               | 
               | scnr
        
               | kremi wrote:
               | Checks are quite foolproof too - spelling out the number
               | (a hundred eighty eight) and writing the number (188),
               | like on checks.
               | 
               | The paragraph you mention seems to worry more about
               | mistakes more than tempering attempts though (taking 10x
               | the dose prescribed could indeed be problematic)
        
               | HPsquared wrote:
               | The important part there is the termination characters.
               | "Dollars" / "Pounds only" etc. and the decimal point
               | (though that's easier to turn into a comma and make into
               | thousands... Funnily enough the German way of using comma
               | as the decimal separator avoids this)
        
               | kijin wrote:
               | Yeah, we've tried null-terminated strings and it wasn't
               | fun. Better use a more explicit, highly visible
               | character.
        
               | miki123211 wrote:
               | Polish still regularly does this for contracts and all
               | kinds of legal document.
               | 
               | I regularly see verbiage like "person A promises to pay
               | person B 100 (in words, one hundred) zloty upon
               | termination of this contract."
        
           | vidarh wrote:
           | But you can add a C just as easily as adding a zero, and now
           | you've turned 10 into 110 or 90 depending on whether there
           | was space before or after the X. I guess adding a D or M
           | would be a bit more suspicious.
        
             | kseistrup wrote:
             | I never claimed it was impossible, just more difficult.
             | Prevention of misreading is more important thar prevention
             | of forgeries, I assume, and any misread og forged number
             | would also have to match existing packaging sizes.
        
               | vidarh wrote:
               | Adding a c is hardly more difficult than adding a 0.
               | 
               | Matching packaging sizes is not necessary - I have had
               | prescriptions that do not match packaging sizes many
               | times - they _will_ cut up sheets or transfer to other
               | containers as needed.
        
               | Anarch157a wrote:
               | That's not universal. In my country, prescription
               | medicine can only be sold in sealed boxes. Fractioning or
               | tranfering to a different container is expressly forbidwn
               | by law, so doctors always prescribe a number of boxes,
               | not of pills. This makes a little more difficult to forge
               | prescriptions.
        
               | 8372049 wrote:
               | This applies to the entire EU/EEA, too.
        
               | vidarh wrote:
               | That must be recent, as it certainly was not the norm in
               | the UK even prior to Brexit. For some medicines, UK
               | pharmacists are _required_ to split packs as needed to
               | give exactly the number of pills prescribed.
               | 
               | I can't find anything to suggest EU rules prevents split
               | packs - I do see there was a _tightening_ of the rules on
               | how to treat packs _if dispensing_ split backs a few
               | years ago, but nothing since. Do you have a source?
               | 
               | EDIT: At least as late as per the False Medicines
               | Directive going into force in 2019, split pack dispensing
               | was explicitly allowed - the FMD set out rules for the
               | controls required to do so. E.g. the original container
               | can not leave the dispensary until its entire content is
               | used, and the pharmacy can't re-sell or supply other
               | pharmacies with it.
        
               | vidarh wrote:
               | If it's prescribed as number of boxes it changes nothing,
               | as it's then just the number of boxes you need to alter
               | instead of number of pills.
        
             | inkyoto wrote:
             | The cited text has an extra detail:                 <<...
             | and it is customary to draw a line above all the letters
             | making up the number, the dots of i and j being put above
             | this line; for example, xviij>>
             | 
             | So, XVIII would have been written likes this:
             | _____       XVIII       -----
             | 
             | Lines would clearly delineate the beginning and the end of
             | the number. This is how I have written the Roman numerals
             | since school.
             | 
             | So, if the script had X written that way, adding a C, would
             | have also required both lines to be extended. Not
             | impossible to forge, but an extra effort nevertheless.
        
               | vidarh wrote:
               | Extending a straight line sounds like the easiest part of
               | the process compared to reproducing a letter so that it
               | matches the handwriting. As an indicator of _error_ this
               | seems to work fine, but to prevent fraud it seems
               | marginal at best.
        
             | 8372049 wrote:
             | Getting a prescription for 90 pills instead of 100 would
             | presumably raise suspicion.
        
               | rileymat2 wrote:
               | Probably depends, my prescriptions seem to be 90 days.
        
               | vidarh wrote:
               | Why? If I'm prescribed a course of something for 90 days,
               | I will get 90 pills, even if the packs have 100.
               | 
               | It might differ by location, but here (I'm in the UK),
               | it's not unusual to e.g. get 14 pills of antibiotics if
               | prescribed a two week course even if the package is in
               | units of 10, for example.
        
           | yreg wrote:
           | Did one need a prescription to buy medicine in 1919?
           | 
           | It seems that prescription drugs were established in 1938 in
           | US and in 1946 in UK.
           | 
           | https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Durham%E2%80%93Humphrey_Amendm.
           | ..
        
           | kazinator wrote:
           | It's easy to turn X into XX (20) or XL (40) or XC (90).
        
         | OJFord wrote:
         | Well they were being given prescriptions (still are) for the
         | location & frequency in Latin, in a way why use Arabic
         | numerals?
        
       | raverbashing wrote:
       | > A j was used for the final i, to make it clear the number had
       | ended.
       | 
       | Yeah I imagined this was the case. Same as other common ways to
       | avoid misunderstanding (and possible forgeries)
        
       | create-account wrote:
       | Seems Just like the letter -y at the end of a or Spanish (or
       | English?) word is a glorified i, to make it more legible
       | 
       | Ley, rey, etc.
        
         | vasco wrote:
         | Great, now I can't move.
        
         | harperlee wrote:
         | Those come from latin lex, rex, so possibly more related to
         | sloppy handwriting getting standardized?
         | 
         | Edit: on the other hand, x used to be read /j/ (e.g. Quixote,
         | Mexico), so also possibly lex --> lej --> ley
        
           | bradrn wrote:
           | > Those come from latin lex, rex
           | 
           | No, in fact they descend from the accusative forms, _legem_
           | and _regem_. I don't know much about the precise evolution,
           | but _g_ - _y_ strikes me as a perfectly normal sound change,
           | especially before  /e/. Looks like it happened in the other
           | Romance languages too: compare French _roi_ , Portuguese
           | _rei_ , Italian _re_ , etc.
        
             | satiric wrote:
             | And in English as well. German "tag" (as in "guten tag"),
             | to Old English "daeg" (with the g pronounced as a y), to
             | Middle English "day".
        
               | vidarh wrote:
               | In that case, German switched _to_ "t", not English
               | _from_. High German is the main odd one out of the
               | Germanic languages in this case.
               | 
               | Compare "Dag" (low German)"; Saterland Frisian "Dai";
               | West Frisian "dei"; "dag" in Old Saxon, Dutch, Norwegian,
               | Swedish, Danish); Faroese and Icelandic "dagur"; Gothic
               | "dags"
               | 
               | d -> t is one of the major High German consonant shifts.
               | Other examples of the d -> t shift is Vater vs. vader,
               | fader, father (from Middle English "fader", so there the
               | "th" in modern English is also not from the German)
               | 
               | Others prominent changes around the same time included
               | e.g. p -> ff (Schiff vs. ship, schip, ship, skip, skib in
               | other Germanic languages) and /t/ -> /t:s/ etc. - compare
               | Zwei with two, to, tva in other Germanic languages.
               | 
               | Very few of those changes made it into English, either
               | Old English at the time, or later - English in that
               | respect tends to be closer to Low German than to current
               | standard German.
               | 
               | (as an English speaker - or a speaker of basically any
               | other Germanic language -, to learn German having a rough
               | idea about the consonant shift is a major help in
               | figuring out German vocabulary - you'll find a lot more
               | German words are "close enough" to be understandable once
               | you recognise the changed sounds)
        
             | yawboakye wrote:
             | correction: spanish is heavily ablative case instead of
             | accusative. original statement is correct in principle
             | since lex, rex are nominative and first in a nominative-
             | genetive form in latin dictionaries. eg. _lex, legis_.
             | _rex, regis_.
        
               | switch007 wrote:
               | > spanish is heavily ablative case instead of accusative
               | 
               | Is it? Aren't the descendants of the ablative mostly
               | -amante adverbs and e.g. conmigo? The wiki article of
               | Ablative Case doesn't even mention Spanish.
               | 
               | Got any other examples of ablative in Spanish?
        
           | asveikau wrote:
           | X in Mexico or Quixote used to be pronounced as "sh". I think
           | X is still used for that sound in Portuguese or Basque or
           | Catalan if I'm not mistaken.
           | 
           | In the case of Mexico they were transcribing a word from
           | indigenous people.
           | 
           | In a bunch of Spanish words coming from Latin, it was often
           | from Latin double S. Eg. paxaro, from Vulgar Latin passarum.
           | I can also think of cases of this sound coming from Arabic,
           | eg. modern ojala was once oxala which is a cognate with
           | "inshallah", note the sh sound.
           | 
           | Sometime around the 1500s this sound changed to /x/ and they
           | changed spellings of a few different sounds whose values had
           | shifted over the centuries. X had merged with a sound they
           | spelled with J, derived from Latin words with J in them.
        
         | DonHopkins wrote:
         | And the Dutch digraph/ligature "ij" is like "y" with an umlaut.
         | 
         | https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IJ_(digraph)
        
           | JW_00000 wrote:
           | > IJ probably developed out of ii, representing a long [i:]
           | sound [...]. In the Middle Ages, the i was written without a
           | dot in handwriting, and the combination ii was often confused
           | with u. Therefore, the second i was elongated: ij. Later, the
           | dots were added, albeit not in Afrikaans, a language that has
           | its roots in Dutch. In this language y is used instead.
           | 
           | > Alternatively, the letter J may have developed as a swash
           | form of i. _In other European languages it was first used for
           | the final i in Roman numerals when there was more than one i
           | in a row, such as iij for "three", to prevent the fraudulent
           | addition of an extra i to change the number._ In Dutch, which
           | had a native ii, the "final i in a row elongated" rule was
           | applied as well, leading to ij.
           | 
           | > Another theory is that IJ might have arisen from the
           | lowercase y being split into two strokes in handwriting. At
           | some time in the 15th or 16th century, this combination began
           | to be spelled as a ligature ij. An argument against this
           | theory is that even in handwriting which does not join
           | letters, ij is often written as a single sign.
           | 
           | So indeed maybe the same as the Roman numerals. Interesting,
           | I didn't know this. (Also interesting that no one really
           | knows where this letter came from.)
        
           | gumby wrote:
           | It doesn't undergo the phonetic process of _umlaut_ , Don,
           | and as it's a vowel the two dots are more like a simple
           | diaeresis.
           | 
           | It is used in that way in French too.
        
             | gpvos wrote:
             | It is neither umlaut nor diaeresis, but just an i and a j
             | with each their own dot smushed together into a ligature,
             | which can take either the form of a y with both those dots
             | on top, or a more rounded form that more resembles an i and
             | j joined together.
             | 
             | I guess in other languages than Dutch it could be a y with
             | a diaeresis or umlaut.
        
         | asveikau wrote:
         | I think Old Spanish had i in some of those. Like rei. Or i
         | meaning and.
        
           | create-account wrote:
           | Old Spanish was probably closer to the real pronunciation and
           | had also more variety, depending on the whim of the scribe.
           | Most of the greatest works ever written in Spanish are prior
           | to the standardisation by the RAE at the end of the 18th
           | century, indeed
        
             | asveikau wrote:
             | I don't know. An /i/ near a vowel in Spanish tends to
             | become /j/. I usually see the consonant y transcribed as
             | [j].
             | 
             | Wikipedia on Spanish phonology notes the difference in
             | pronunciation between _viuda_ and _ayuda_ which is an
             | interesting contrast in two very similar sounding words.
             | 
             | Old Spanish had a lot of phonological differences so I'm
             | not sure you can do a straight comparison.
        
             | anthk wrote:
             | Old Spanish it's something from 1200. Since Nebrija, the
             | modern spelling was near already there.
        
               | asveikau wrote:
               | Old Spanish lasted until about 1500 afaik. The contrast
               | wasn't just spelling, the spelling differences are due to
               | deeper phonetic changes.
        
               | anthk wrote:
               | I know; but since Don Quixote and Lazarillo de Tormes the
               | modern phonetic changes were already there.
               | 
               | I own an anotated Lazarillo book for modern Spanish
               | readers, btw. It will describe you every ancient jargon
               | and old sayings as footnotes. And, of course, some of the
               | context.
        
       | threatripper wrote:
       | Now i wonder if there's a connection between j and ; as
       | termination character.
        
         | quectophoton wrote:
         | That's a good point, somehow I've never noticed the similarity
         | between ";" and "j" until you pointed it out.
        
         | yawboakye wrote:
         | in programming? otherwise the semi-colon has a history that
         | doesn't seem to be influenced by final characters
         | https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Semicolon
        
       | qznc wrote:
       | > if all the letters i and J are not dotted, the pharmacist may
       | be in doubt as to the number intended.
       | 
       | Oh, is that where "dot the i's and cross the t's" comes from? I
       | can imagine that saying being hammered into many medical
       | practitioners back then.
        
         | amenhotep wrote:
         | Pretty sure that's just a derivation from everyday handwriting.
         | The i-dots and t-crosses are two typical elements that can't be
         | written without lifting the pen, so it's quite a frequent thing
         | to put pen to paper, write out a word that includes i and t but
         | leave them unfinished so you can continue the rest of the
         | letters in one fluid motion, then go back and finish them off
         | by dotting and crossing them.
         | 
         | Hence dotting is and crossing ts is going back to do final
         | touches that you've neglected or may have missed while working
         | quickly or casually.
        
         | ahazred8ta wrote:
         | We also have jot and tittle, from yod(y) and titulus(').
         | Likewise 'not one iota'.
        
       | gpvos wrote:
       | The Dutch digraph ij originated from the same custom. Originally
       | written ii, later ij, and pronounced as a long i (English "ee"),
       | the sound later shifted to be similar to English "eye", see the
       | Dutch names for the cities Berlijn and Parijs. Meanwhile, the
       | long i sound is now written as ie. IJ is the only Dutch digraph
       | that tends to be treated as a single letter and is capitalized as
       | such. In education in the Netherlands it is taught as the 25th
       | letter instead of y, which does not occur in native Dutch words,
       | and in the phone book it used to be sorted together (mixed) with
       | y. But since the advent of computers it is generally sorted as i
       | followed by j. There are a few place names like Ysselsteyn where
       | Y is pronounced as IJ.
        
         | jetrink wrote:
         | Very interesting. An example that users of this forum will be
         | familiar with is Edsger Dijkstra.
        
           | segfaltnh wrote:
           | Does this mean the correct pronunciation is "deekstra"?
        
             | wirrbel wrote:
             | no, daykstra. In the dutch of the middle-ages it might have
             | been deekstra
        
             | dep_b wrote:
             | It's more like dye-kstra. But that would still be wrong.
             | It's a sound that doesn't exist in English.
             | 
             | Daikstra - you can pronounce this
             | 
             | Dijkstra - a sound in between you cannot pronounce coming
             | from English
             | 
             | Diekstra - you can pronounce this too
        
               | samatman wrote:
               | In IPA, the name is /deikstra/. Americans (English vowels
               | vary quite extremely by dialect/accent, so I'm sticking
               | with Standard American English) can easily pronounce e,
               | we say the word 'bed' as /bed/.
               | 
               | But the 'ei' is a dipthong, and we don't have that
               | dipthong. We have aI, as in 'bride' /braId/, which is
               | what usually comes out, at least for those of us who know
               | that /dZIkstr@/ is not even close to right. What you'll
               | hear is generally something like /daIkstr@/, which make
               | sense, as we pronounce 'dike' /daIk/ as well.
               | 
               | So yes, completely correct, I just wanted to add the IPA
               | for clarity.
        
               | BalinKing wrote:
               | To my understanding, most American and British English
               | dialects[0] have /eI/, e.g. in "maze", which I imagine is
               | quite close to /ei/.
               | 
               | [0] The exceptions being dialects where it
               | monophthongizes to /e:/
        
               | _a_a_a_ wrote:
               | "monophthongizes" Heck of a word is that.
        
               | BalinKing wrote:
               | hey, I don't make the rules :-P
               | https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Monophthongization
        
               | tomsmeding wrote:
               | Dutch /e/ has the tendency to become /eI/ as well (not in
               | Flemish, I think), so /eI/ just sounds mostly like "e" to
               | us (Dutch speakers in NL). The "ij" is really /eI/, but
               | because we don't really have /aI/, it turns out that /aI/
               | works fine as a fairly non-ambiguous substitute.
        
               | gpvos wrote:
               | That is indeed pretty close, but not exact.
        
               | samatman wrote:
               | True, but to my ear at least, /eI/ is further from /ei/
               | than /aI/ is. Maybe more to the point, English speakers
               | (American ones at least) are going to "realize" the name
               | Dijkstra with an /aI/ dipthong. "Dayksra" would not occur
               | to us to say.
               | 
               | Phonemes are a funny thing: if an American were to
               | pronounce that last name perfectly (or a Dutch person
               | speaking English, for that matter), other Americans would
               | still hear /daIkstr@/, or at most, "/daIkstr@/ but it
               | sounds a bit foreign".
               | 
               | Some sounds which we don't produce are audibly not-
               | English-phonemes, like German u or Scandanavian o, but
               | others are not. Another example of this is that native
               | English speakers aren't usually sensitive to the
               | difference between the r sound in our word "pear" and the
               | r sound in Spanish "pero", but recognize that "perro" is
               | a different rhotic sound.
        
             | gpvos wrote:
             | It could be in several Dutch dialects (which did not take
             | part in the sound shift I described), but not in the
             | standard language. See the sibling replies.
        
         | cbluth wrote:
         | Don't forget the river IJ, sounds like "eye"
        
           | stavros wrote:
           | Is it "eye" or "ey"? I remember "destijl" pronounced "de
           | steyl" and not "de style".
        
             | gpvos wrote:
             | It's a sound that does not exactly exist in English,
             | somewhere between the diphtongized a in maze and eye. Quite
             | many dialects kept the old ee pronunciation.
        
           | Muromec wrote:
           | And then kids in Amsterdam pronounce it now as I anyway
        
           | euroderf wrote:
           | And the windmill-brewery in AMS, Brouwerij 't IJ.
        
           | kbouck wrote:
           | There's also an Amsterdam movie theatre across the IJ named
           | "Eye" Film. I(expat)'ve always heard dutch "ij" as an over-
           | annunciated "eye" where the sides of your mouth are a more
           | widely open.
        
         | robador wrote:
         | I'm pretty sure I was taught the letter y (I-grec) as part of
         | the alfabet and not the ij (I'm Dutch as well). The other day I
         | was surprised to see that an alfabet song that my kid was
         | watching used the ij instead of the y. And I thought you were
         | talking about IJsselstein, but saw there's indeed also
         | Ysselsteyn, and they're not the same town (though pronounced
         | the same). Interestingly we've then 3 ways to write the same
         | sound (though y can also be pronounced as 'ee', e.g. Yvonne);
         | y, ij, ei, oh, and I suppose 'ey' should be counted as well
         | though that's not used in modern spelling. Cool
        
           | martyvis wrote:
           | My Mum is an Australian Yvonne and married my Dutch father
           | Jan. When we spent a whole year in the Netherlands back in
           | 1971, Dutch acquaintances would always pronounce her name
           | something like Yuh-vonna, quite different to how in English
           | it is said like Ee-vonn. (My Dad's name is pronounced like
           | Yun of course)
           | 
           | And yes as a 7 year old Aussie it was interesting learning
           | that the digram "ij" was the 25th letter on the Dutch
           | alphabet
        
             | breakingcups wrote:
             | I know several Yvonne's and we'd all pronounce it Ee-vonna.
        
             | gpvos wrote:
             | That's strange. Standard Dutch pronunciation of that name,
             | transliterated back to English spelling, would be Ee-vonna.
        
           | saghm wrote:
           | One of the things that blew my mind when I took a few
           | semesters of Dutch in college is that the language
           | occasionally gets amended (or more precisely, the way it's
           | taught in schools is amended, although after a generation or
           | two of delay the effects are the same) to fix
           | inconsistencies. I can't remember if clarifying 'ij' and 'y'
           | was one of those, but I remember the professor telling us
           | about how a while back people were upset when they updated
           | the spelling of the word "pannenkoek" (which I think had
           | previously been spelled "pannekoek"), which some people
           | apparently still haven't gotten over after almost three
           | decades[1].
           | 
           | I wish there were enough willpower for something similar for
           | English, but it's probably too late to reach any sort of
           | compromise on whether to use a "u" in words like
           | "color"/"colour".
           | 
           | [1]: https://dutchreview.com/news/dutch-government-argue-
           | over-spe...
        
             | prerok wrote:
             | Well, I think the difference is that for Dutch, people are
             | mostly colocated, i.e. share the same space and have a
             | national curriculum to guide the use.
             | 
             | For English, it's quite different because many countries
             | list it as their official language but may have diverged
             | spellings and meanings and there is no single body to
             | direct the curriculum. The most notable is the US vs.
             | British English and the u in colo(u)r is a mere spelling
             | example. Consider surgery or elevator, which are bigger
             | discrepancies. I remember from my school days, as a non-
             | native speaker, these were much more troublesome and we had
             | a special test just to check we could tell which is which
             | in US and GB English.
        
               | daniel-s wrote:
               | I think the reason is different. Some languages have
               | official bodies that decree how a language works. For
               | example the French have the French Academy.
               | 
               | English has no "boss" in charge of how the language works
               | and who decides what the correct anything for the
               | language is. The closest are style guides, but they come
               | from multiple organisations and each often different to
               | each other. So, it's harder to just decide that something
               | will be spelt differently.
        
               | prerok wrote:
               | Indeed, that was what I was trying to say, but you put it
               | more accurately. Thanks!
        
               | kmeisthax wrote:
               | A language is a dialect with an army and a navy.
               | 
               | English had multiple attempted spelling reforms, but that
               | mostly resulted in differences between American and
               | British spellings of the same words. There was no central
               | power to enforce a single English spelling because
               | America had successfully broken off from the British
               | Empire whose coercive force backed the English language.
               | 
               | In contrast, France was extremely good at putting down
               | revolutionaries in their colonies. Even when they gained
               | nominal independence France would invent debts to
               | impoverish their former colonies. France was _also_
               | extremely good at putting down local languages, even
               | within France itself. France waged a century-long
               | campaign to hunt its own minority languages to
               | extinction[0] and the language regulators are themselves
               | part of the same infrastructure.
               | 
               | In other words, "regular spelling" is a colonial atrocity
               | and English's incomprehensible spelling rules are a
               | demonstration of freedom.
               | 
               | This can even be demonstrated in each language's attitude
               | towards loanwords. English stole huge swaths of Latin,
               | Greek, and French vocabulary. Text even a few centuries
               | old is difficult to read and anything older than
               | Shakespeare is completely inscrutable[1] as there's too
               | many Germanic root words for this ostensibly Germanic
               | language. Meanwhile in France, their language regulators
               | fight tirelessly to invent new calques for English
               | loanwords to stop the "Anglicization of French", as if
               | that were a thing that needed to be stopped.
               | 
               | Well, I suppose there is one reason why you'd want to
               | stop it: loanwords make it far harder to regularize
               | spelling. Think about, say, all the Japanese loanwords in
               | English. Hepburn romanization[2] _tried_ to make them
               | readable to English speakers, but didn 't do a great job,
               | so now English has to accommodate spellings like
               | _karaoke_ , _tsundere_ , or _sakura_ alongside spellings
               | like _pleonasm_ , _beef_ , or _Olympic_. Good luck
               | inventing a spelling system that can both faithfully
               | represent the  "correct" sounds for all of those words,
               | while also remaining legible to present English readers,
               | and being adopted in every country that speaks English to
               | some degree - off the top of my head that includes
               | America, Canada, the UK, Australia, India, Nigeria, and
               | South Africa.
               | 
               | [0] Which I suspect may have also inspired analogous
               | atrocities in Canada against indigenous Canadians
               | 
               | [1] As I put it to a native Japanese speaker: "You can
               | read Genji, I can't read Beowolf."
               | 
               | [2] Which itself isn't used by native speakers since you
               | can't round-trip Hepburn to Romaji. Japan itself uses
               | Kunrei-shiki romanization, it's the one that spells tsu
               | as _tu_ instead of _tsu_.
        
               | gpvos wrote:
               | The few Welsh and Gaelic speakers that remain entered the
               | chat.
        
               | seszett wrote:
               | > _Meanwhile in France, their language regulators fight
               | tirelessly to invent new calques for English loanwords to
               | stop the "Anglicization of French", as if that were a
               | thing that needed to be stopped._
               | 
               | That's something one hears quite often from English
               | speakers but I don't really know where this myth comes
               | from.
               | 
               | French is a quite decentralised language with each
               | country having its own "regulator" but none of them have
               | legal power. They are all just advisory organisations.
               | Many the one with the most power is the OQLF in Quebec.
               | The French ministry of education decides what is taught
               | in France and some of its reforms are sometimes followed
               | by the other countries, but they don't deal with
               | vocabulary itself, mostly orthography.
               | 
               | The Academie Francaise does invent words, but they have
               | no official value or power. Their main occupation is
               | documenting actual usage.
               | 
               | Most other European languages do have international,
               | language wide regulators though, often with actual legal
               | value, but French doesn't have anything like this.
               | 
               | I think it all comes down to English speakers knowing
               | even less about the other languages than they know about
               | French.
        
               | YawningAngel wrote:
               | I'm not sure I agree with your second footnote. Beowulf
               | is written in Old English, which is quite hard for modern
               | English speakers to read on account of being German.
               | Middle English, however, I think you'd find fairly
               | palatable. For example, the Peterborough Chronicle
               | (https://adoneilson.com/eme/texts/peterborough_40.html)
               | is _roughly_ contemporaneous with the Tale of Genji and
               | is readable by modern English speakers.
        
               | dragonwriter wrote:
               | > For English, it's quite different because many
               | countries list it as their official language but may have
               | diverged spellings and meanings and there is no single
               | body to direct the curriculum. The most notable is the US
               | 
               | The US doesn't have an official language, though most
               | institutions operate primarily in English, and all US
               | states that have one or more official languages include
               | English on that list.
        
               | dhosek wrote:
               | Nor does the US have an official curriculum. In the 80s,
               | there was a wide variation both between and within states
               | as to what a student with a high school diploma might
               | have been expected to know. When the state of Illinois
               | increased the graduation requirement for high school
               | students from 1 to 2 years of mathematics, my high school
               | added a second-year general math class because too many
               | students couldn't pass pre-algebra because fractions were
               | beyond their ken. (The graduation requirement was
               | subsequently amended such that no math below algebra
               | could be counted for graduation and then later that
               | students needed to have taken at least math up to the
               | level of algebra and geometry because of districts
               | stretching algebra I into a two-year sequence).
        
               | bobthepanda wrote:
               | Common Core was probably the closest to a consistent
               | curricula but then got bogged down in politics.
        
               | dhosek wrote:
               | Most (maybe all now?) states have standard state-wide
               | curricula. Some are painfully vague, some are painfully
               | detailed. When I was looking at this when I got my
               | credential, it seemed like many small-to-medium sized
               | states copy-pasted their curricula from other states.
        
             | retrac wrote:
             | The French do something similar, as do the Germans. They've
             | had relatively little luck with substantial changes
             | recently, though. The 1990 French reforms were rather
             | trivial. For example. the placement of the diaeresis was
             | shifted to the first vowel in some digraphs. So "aigue"
             | (acute, sharp) is now "aigue" since it is two syllables,
             | but the former spelling misleadingly hints at three
             | syllables. That one seems to have been well-accepted. Many
             | of the other reforms have been only partially accepted, or
             | explicitly rejected by many speakers. (I don't think I am
             | ever going to get used to "ognon" for onion.)
        
             | bobthepanda wrote:
             | The thing is that with all the regional Englishes and their
             | pronunciations it would be basically impossible to settle
             | on a consistent phonetic spelling.
        
               | gpvos wrote:
               | Dutch has an amazing variety of dialects. Strong dialect
               | speakers from the southwest and northeast corners of the
               | language area will not be able to understand each others
               | dialects.
        
               | bobthepanda wrote:
               | there's only one prestige Dutch dialect though whereas
               | English has multiple prestige regional dialects.
               | 
               | It would be like if Dutch and Afrikaans had to agree on
               | spellings.
        
         | wirrbel wrote:
         | A local theme park as a "dutch quarter" and I as a kid was
         | always fascinated by one booth having a letter "y" in the name.
         | I later learned that it was some kind of alternativ spelling
         | for ij, and if you spell ij in black letters its really easy to
         | see why that might have occured.
        
           | thequux wrote:
           | It's also quite common in handwriting; ij in cursive looks
           | exactly like y, and even when the letters aren't all joined,
           | that is a common ligature. When I studied Flemish as part of
           | the integration course, all of the teachers wrote y, and so I
           | presumed that it was just the done thing.
        
         | DougN7 wrote:
         | 30 years ago I knew a very old Swiss woman who told me they
         | used the 'letter' ij ("yotee" if I remember correctly) instead
         | of just a j (j in Swiss/German makes a y sound, like in
         | jawohl). Hoping a Swiss person can fill in the details.
        
           | monomers wrote:
           | There is no standard writing system for Swiss German. So she
           | might have used it, but it would be unclear to most Swiss
           | what it means/how it should be pronounced.
        
         | consp wrote:
         | In Zeeuws (a Dutch dialect) many words in standard Dutch with
         | an "ij" are pronounced as "ee" and written as "ie". So not
         | everything has changed everywhere. (e.g. Dijk is Diek)
        
         | dudeinjapan wrote:
         | Haha I was going to make a snarky comment that xij is done to
         | make it look more Dutch, but its actually true!
        
         | syncsynchalt wrote:
         | My favorite part of ij is the folk transliteration to the
         | character "y".
         | 
         | In cursive script, it's easy to see how "ij" becomes "y".
         | However, "y"s Unicode codepoint of U+FF means it often shows up
         | as a placeholder for "unrecognized character", doubling down
         | the misapprehension that "y" is the correct character in dutch
         | text.
        
           | gpvos wrote:
           | My favourite parts are (1) how you can see a capital U with a
           | small cutout at the bottom of the left straight line used as
           | IJ, and (2) how some foreign words are mangled by Dutch
           | people who are not so good at spelling, like bijoux spelled
           | as byoux, which can in turn confuse foreign visitors.
        
         | krsdcbl wrote:
         | this makes so much sense - speaking German and English
         | fluently, my brain always defaulted to interpret "ij" in dutch
         | as "ee'" - but it took your comment to make me understand that
         | it's indeed correct, and actually why
        
       | Sharlin wrote:
       | Similar flourish to the "long s" once used in English to spell
       | the "ss" gemination: _possess_ or _possess_.
       | 
       | https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Long_s
        
         | nine_k wrote:
         | In German, the ligature of s and s turned into a single
         | character ss.
        
           | gumby wrote:
           | It was actually s+z, which is easier to see if you look at it
           | in Fraktur, and is literally the name of the character. I
           | have long been puzzled by how its romanization became ,,ss".
           | In older writing 's' was just the terminal form of 's' -- if
           | you needed two you just wrote ss, same as in English into the
           | early 19th century.
           | 
           | Other ligatures like tz and ch did not survive the jump into
           | Roman letterforms, only ss for some reason.
           | 
           | By the way the now obsolete dual letterforms of s (s/s) was
           | inherited from Greek. We're lucky it was still in use in
           | Leibniz's time or calculus notation would be more confusing!
        
             | peterfirefly wrote:
             | There were ligatures for both ss and sz. The name for the
             | sz survived for both. The modern eszett glyph usually looks
             | like an ss ligature (long s + short s).
        
             | canjobear wrote:
             | Not only the romanization, also the capital form in German
             | is SS.
             | 
             | The ss sticks around in German because it prevents some
             | ambiguities. For example Busse and Busse are different
             | words with different pronunciations.
             | 
             | Basically German orthography backed itself into a corner
             | because of two rules: a vowel before a doubled consonant is
             | short, and an s before a vowel is pronounced /z/. This
             | leaves you with no clear way to write a long vowel followed
             | by an /s/ sound followed by a vowel: VssV would make the
             | first vowel short, and VsV would keep the first vowel long
             | but the consonant would be pronounced as /z/. The ss solves
             | this problem.
        
               | NeoTar wrote:
               | > The ss sticks around in German
               | 
               | Some German. I believe it's basically abandoned in Swiss
               | German.
        
             | syncsynchalt wrote:
             | > I have long been puzzled by how its romanization became
             | ,,ss".
             | 
             | This might help:
             | https://thelanguagecloset.com/2022/11/05/the-story-of-
             | eszett...
             | 
             | In short, it codifies a pronunciation that existed before a
             | phonetic shift. The transliteration was codified after that
             | same shift.
        
       | kqr wrote:
       | Here I was hoping it was indicating a complex number, since i was
       | already taken.
       | 
       | ...on that note, how would one write complex numbers in Roman
       | numerals, now that both i and j are taken?
        
         | neutronicus wrote:
         | Not a notational consideration that occurred to the Romans
        
         | layer8 wrote:
         | __       [?]-I
        
       | politelemon wrote:
       | Really interesting thanks for sharing. It's great to learn these
       | little things which would have been well known at one point but
       | start to be forgotten as time and society progresses.
        
       | dtgriscom wrote:
       | First thought, without reading article: decimal point! (How else
       | can you write pi in Roman numerals?)
        
       | mannykannot wrote:
       | _So you should interpret xvij as 17, not 16. It 's part of the
       | number, not something appended._
       | 
       | The original off-by-one error?
        
         | gumby wrote:
         | A fun thought, but really Iust a reading error from someone ho
         | didn't know that i and j used to be variant forms of the same
         | letter.
        
         | asveikau wrote:
         | No, it's because the letter J came about in the 4th century AD
         | to cover the consonant version of I in Latin.
         | 
         | J and I are thus equivalent.
         | 
         | There is a similar history between U and V. The original latin
         | alphabet just had V. U covers the case where V is a vowel. That
         | is why in old carvings and statues they sometimes write U as V.
        
           | tiffanyh wrote:
           | > J and I are thus equivalent.
           | 
           | Why isn't "june" then "iune"?
           | 
           | > U covers the case where V is a vowel
           | 
           | Why is "quit" not "qvit"? Because isn't a "u" following a "q"
           | always a non-vowel (constant)?
           | 
           | https://www.ck12.org/spelling/u-a-vowel-that-can-act-as-a-
           | co....
        
             | asveikau wrote:
             | I'm talking about historical use of these letters in Latin.
             | 
             | But if you've seen middle and early modern English text
             | that hasn't been sanitized for modern readers, you will see
             | a lot of stuff. You'll see W written as uu. You'll see lots
             | of Vs and Us trading places, in places we no longer put
             | them.
             | 
             | And eg. I kind of suspect the UK pronunciation of
             | lieutenant, where u is /f/, has roots in it being /v/.
        
               | romanhn wrote:
               | Interestingly, the OED disagrees with this (quite
               | reasonably sounding) origin theory of lieutenant: https:/
               | /www.grammarphobia.com/blog/2015/02/lieutenant.html
        
               | asveikau wrote:
               | I read it as supporting my theory.
               | 
               | It says that in French of the time as heard by English
               | people at the time, the phonetic value of that u was
               | ambiguously heard as f or v.
               | 
               | My position is v and u were phonetically ambiguous or
               | sometimes heard as the same in Latin and romance
               | languages. Maybe also in older forms of English.
        
             | falcor84 wrote:
             | >Why isn't "june" then "iune"?
             | 
             | I'm not certain about the etymology, but many languages do
             | use an "i" sound for the names of June and July. I wouldn't
             | be surprised if it started with an "i", then people
             | switched to writing it with a "j" while still using the
             | same sound, and then later people began pronouncing it
             | differently.
        
             | saghm wrote:
             | To add to the sibling comment mentioning that "v" as the
             | vowel "u" was a thing in Latin historically, it does get
             | used this way sometimes in "fancy" signs in English even
             | today (I've seen it mostly on buildings that have Greco-
             | Roman architecture styles, which is fitting). From a quick
             | google, I found this [1] picture of the word "county"
             | spelled with a "V".
             | 
             | [1]: https://content.9news.com/photo/2016/08/26/citycounty2
             | _denve...
        
               | madcaptenor wrote:
               | The main entrance to MIT has carved over it MASSACHVSETTS
               | INSTITVTE OF TECHNOLOGY
        
               | gorlilla wrote:
               | My initial instinct was that a v is easier to engrave
               | than a u because straight lines. That falls short once
               | you notice all of the other curvy letters.
        
               | dhosek wrote:
               | In majuscule forms (i.e., all upper case) V was the
               | normal shape for u/v while in minuscule forms (i.e., all
               | lower case), u was the normal shape. This is why you'll
               | see V in engravings rather than U. Albrecht Durer's _Of
               | the Just Shaping of Letters_ which shows only upper-case
               | forms provides a V shape but not a U shape. His textura,
               | at the end of the book, has a single letter in the upper-
               | case, but both u and v in the lowercase with a distinct
               | base character beneath the umlaut for u.
        
               | baking wrote:
               | https://commons.wikimedia.org/wiki/File:Massachvsetts_Ins
               | tit...
        
             | kergonath wrote:
             | > Why isn't "june" then "iune"?
             | 
             | Because it's not Latin? Things change quite a lot as
             | centuries pass. But it could have been different, like in
             | German, in which Juni (=June) is pronounced /iuni/.
        
               | dhosek wrote:
               | J is one of those letters that gets treated wildly
               | different depending on the language. Compare Germanic and
               | Slavic languages where j = /y/, French and Portuguese
               | where j = /zh/, Spanish where j = /h/ (but with a bit
               | more edge than English /h/, kind of halfway between /h/
               | and /kh/).
        
             | prerok wrote:
             | There is no j in Latin of ancient times. Both letters v and
             | j were additions in the renaissence era.
        
             | prerok wrote:
             | In roman times June was Iunius (pronounced You-nee-ew-s, or
             | something like that, I am not a native English speaker).
             | 
             | The change in the pronunciation is just centuries' worth of
             | language evolution.
        
       | lupire wrote:
       | Hebrew has similar word-ending swashes: Final Kaf, Final Mem,
       | Final Nun, Final Fe, Final Tzadi
        
       | jensenbox wrote:
       | This feels like some kind of weird parity but or checksum-ish
       | thing.
        
       | gregatragenet3 wrote:
       | The most interesting thing is that that post sat for months
       | without the answer "why" it was done, but chatgpt knew, from the
       | comment added 2h ago.
       | 
       | The j was to prevent forgery, or altering the document. ii could
       | be altered later to iii.. but if it was ij its obvious its been
       | tampered with if it later appears as iji
        
         | layer8 wrote:
         | StackExchange doesn't allow AI answers. ;)
        
         | crtasm wrote:
         | The question was asked over 10 years ago and now it's getting
         | clicks from HN someone's copypasted a claim from a LLM,
         | possibly without verifying it. That is kind of interesting, but
         | not in a good way.
        
         | kazinator wrote:
         | x can be altered to xx; why isn't that a problem?
        
         | burkaman wrote:
         | ChatGPT just read that on Wikipedia (https://en.m.wikipedia.org
         | /wiki/Roman_numerals#Use_in_the_Mi..., https://samplecontents.l
         | ibrary.ph/wikipedia/wp/r/Roman_numer...). Notably, Wikipedia's
         | source (https://archive.org/details/materiamedica00bastgoog/pag
         | e/584...) doesn't appear to say anything about fraud or forgery
         | or tampering, and that explanation doesn't actually make much
         | sense as it would be quite easy to circumvent.
         | 
         | So please don't trust comments that just say "ChatGPT told
         | me..."
        
         | rossdavidh wrote:
         | The question was "asked Oct 10, 2013 at 1:54" and the answer
         | (which explains why it was done) was "answered Oct 10, 2013 at
         | 2:58". A more likely take on chatgpt's answer is that their
         | anti-fraud explanation is not even correct; the 2013 answer
         | provides citations from the time explaining why, and anti-fraud
         | is not mentioned.
        
       | crazygringo wrote:
       | As far as preventing forgery/tampering with the number, it's
       | funny because this applies to merely the smallest part.
       | 
       | The "j" instead of "i" prevents you from adding another 1 or 2 to
       | the number, at most.
       | 
       | Meanwhile, you could still change "ii" to "vii" or "xii" or
       | "lxii" or whatever on the left side.
       | 
       | And still often append "i" on the right side when it _doesn 't_
       | end in "j" -- "x" can still become "xj", "xij", "xvij", etc.
       | 
       | It's just funny that you'd bother at all with "j" when it
       | achieves so little. I see that it was also a practice to draw a
       | line over the number -- why not just draw a whole box around it?
        
         | mvkel wrote:
         | Isn't that true for all numerals? You can make 2 12, or 21.
         | 
         | This is why in legal documents you'll see things like "no more
         | than twelve (12) months"
        
           | kazinator wrote:
           | On cheques, you write the dollar part of the amount in words,
           | with no margin to add anything on the left, and then
           | immediately followed by a long horizontal dash to strike out
           | anything that may be appended.
        
         | strken wrote:
         | The source from the article doesn't sound like it's a measure
         | against tampering, but instead a way to stop the patient
         | receiving the wrong dose by accident. Prior to the early 1900s
         | I'm pretty sure you could buy cocaine and opium over the
         | counter in most of the English-speaking world, so there
         | wouldn't have been any reason to alter your prescription.
         | 
         | Edit: the source given by the article was from 1919, so it
         | would have been within a couple of decades of the earlier
         | laissez-faire drug policy.
        
         | yencabulator wrote:
         | My theory #1: It's not protection against forgery, it's
         | protection against accidental misreads. It's less likely a
         | random smear looks like an "x" of "v" than an "i", so they
         | don't really benefit from the terminal marker. And "i" can
         | never start a large roman numeral, so just a terminal marker is
         | fine.
         | 
         | Theory #2: It didn't start as such protection. It started as a
         | typographical convention -- remember, there was a time when "i"
         | and "j" weren't separate letters, "u" and "v" were not separate
         | letters, and so on -- which then people started using as a
         | reading guide.
        
           | jacobolus wrote:
           | I've been skimming a bunch of 16th-17th century English books
           | with blackletter type recently, and the relation of  to r, s
           | to s, v to u, j to i, Z vs z, etc. seem generally similar,
           | just typographic variants of a letter to be used
           | interchangeably or with one form in the middle of a word and
           | another at the end or beginning depending on the letter.
           | (Disclaimer: I am not an expert on this topic.)
        
       | jmount wrote:
       | "dot the i's and cross the t's" (related to the 1919 referenced
       | answer https://genealogy.stackexchange.com/a/3751 ).
        
       | quotemstr wrote:
       | They say that you should never fix a curfty system by rewriting
       | it. The transition from Roman numerals to Arabic numbers is a
       | great example of a situation in which you should ignore this
       | advice.
        
       | kazinator wrote:
       | I don't understand why it's clear that _xx_ is terminated, but
       | not clear that _iii_ is terminated, requiring the last _i_ to be
       | a _j_.
       | 
       | (Furthermore, if you have additional syntax on it like a
       | superscript _th_ , why is the _j_ still needed then. That 's a
       | pure onion in the varnish at that point; someone just using the
       | _j_ without thinking about its purpose and necessity.)
        
         | dhosek wrote:
         | It's easier to squeeze in another i than another x in modifying
         | a written note. Sort of like why amounts are written out in
         | words as well as numbers on checks (young readers, ask your
         | parents what checks are).
        
       | jll29 wrote:
       | i and j are both post-Roman time glyphs for the Roman numeral I
       | (=1).
        
       | throw156754228 wrote:
       | TLDR last I written as a J.
        
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