[HN Gopher] Goodsteins theorem
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       Goodsteins theorem
        
       Author : dedalus
       Score  : 76 points
       Date   : 2023-12-23 20:20 UTC (3 days ago)
        
 (HTM) web link (en.wikipedia.org)
 (TXT) w3m dump (en.wikipedia.org)
        
       | DeathArrow wrote:
       | >Laurence Kirby and Jeff Paris[1] showed that it is unprovable in
       | Peano arithmetic (but it can be proven in stronger systems, such
       | as second-order arithmetic). This was the third example of a true
       | statement about natural numbers that is unprovable in Peano
       | arithmetic, after the examples provided by Godel's incompleteness
       | theorem and Gerhard Gentzen's 1943 direct proof of the
       | unprovability of e0-induction in Peano arithmetic.
       | 
       | It seems math is never perfect but always perfectible. A perfect
       | system wouldn't have paradoxes. One common example is Russel
       | paradox.
       | 
       | We arrive at different conclusions by choosing a different set of
       | axioms and constructing everything else based on that set. We can
       | have parallels that intersect and parallels that don't.
        
         | p-e-w wrote:
         | We don't want perfect systems but useful ones. A perfect axiom
         | system wouldn't have true but unprovable statements either,
         | yet, as we learned a while ago, any such "perfect" system would
         | be unable to express even basic arithmetic.
        
           | DeathArrow wrote:
           | >We don't want perfect systems but useful ones.
           | 
           | I think that is the difference between science and
           | engineering. Science strives for the ultimate truth while
           | engineering cares about useful stuff.
        
             | p-e-w wrote:
             | During the past century, it has been demonstrated again and
             | again that the "ultimate truth" either doesn't exist or
             | cannot be attained (Incompleteness Theorem, Uncertainty
             | Principle, Observable Universe, not to mention a million
             | philosophical and psychological problems).
             | 
             | If that is what science strives for, it's a lost cause.
             | Fortunately, lots of valuable things can be achieved
             | without chasing such lofty, unattainable goals.
        
               | baq wrote:
               | Actually... reaching the very limits of knowability is
               | the crown achievement of science and your first two
               | examples have very important engineering implications.
               | 
               | Given these economies, perhaps it makes sense to say
               | wherever in science we aren't at the boundary of
               | knowable, there's still something worth discovering.
        
               | Karellen wrote:
               | If "ultimate truth" cannot be attained, but can be
               | asymptotically approached, is striving for it still a
               | lost cause if the knowledge gained in the approach might
               | be useful?
               | 
               | I'll never be able to run a marathon as fast as Eliud
               | Kipchoge. That doesn't mean it's a lost cause for me to
               | try to get my marathon time as close to his as possible -
               | I can still achieve valuable things _despite_ the goal
               | being lofty and unattainable. Further, I might achieve
               | more through chasing an unattainable goal, than I would
               | if I 'd set my sights lower.
               | 
               | It's also worth remembering the aphorism that people
               | saying: "It can't be done," are always being interrupted
               | by somebody doing it.
        
               | lanstin wrote:
               | Ones reach should exceed one's grasp, else what's a
               | heaven for.
        
               | klyrs wrote:
               | I disagree strongly with your reading of those results.
               | Each says that the "ultimate truth" is complicated --
               | that not every question has an easy answer. That doesn't
               | say there isn't an ultimate truth, just "that question
               | cannot be answered" _is_ the ultimate truth. Exploring
               | the bounds of knowability is incredibly important to the
               | dual side of science; exploring the bounds of knowledge.
               | In my lofty opinion, the very purpose of humanity is to
               | bring these bounds together.
        
       | Tazerenix wrote:
       | A theorem which is true in every model is provable by Godel's
       | completeness theorem. Since this theorem is true for the standard
       | model of the natural numbers but not provable, it follows there
       | are nonstandard models of the natural numbers for which it is
       | false.
       | 
       | That is, there are models of Peano arithmetic which contain all
       | of the natural numbers we know and love, and some other ones on
       | top of that and there are some Goodstein sequences using those
       | extra "non-standard" natural numbers which do not terminate at
       | zero.
       | 
       | https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Non-standard_model_of_arithmet...
        
         | theteapot wrote:
         | Quote from linked page:
         | 
         | > _The existence of non-standard models of arithmetic can be
         | demonstrated by an application of the compactness theorem. To
         | do this, a set of axioms P* is defined in a language including
         | the language of Peano arithmetic together with a new constant
         | symbol x. The axioms consist of the axioms of Peano arithmetic
         | P together with another infinite set of axioms: for each
         | numeral n, the axiom x > n is included. Any finite subset of
         | these axioms is satisfied by a model that is the standard model
         | of arithmetic plus the constant x interpreted as some number
         | larger than any numeral mentioned in the finite subset of P_.
         | Thus by the compactness theorem there is a model satisfying all
         | the axioms P _. Since any model of P* is a model of P (since a
         | model of a set of axioms is obviously also a model of any
         | subset of that set of axioms), we have that our extended model
         | is also a model of the Peano axioms. The element of this model
         | corresponding to x cannot be a standard number, because as
         | indicated it is larger than any standard number._
         | 
         | So basically take Peano arithmetic and say "Hey Peano
         | Arithmetic, what's the largest number you have? Oh _n_ you say?
         | well exists _x > n_. Haha". Seems like childish game.
        
           | anvuong wrote:
           | It's philosophical. It's either turtle all the way down or
           | the axiomatic systems. With axiomatic systems you'll always
           | get things like this, and this is what keeps mathematician
           | awake at night.
        
             | theteapot wrote:
             | If we can just make up random axioms like this, I think I'd
             | prefer the turtles :).
        
             | H8crilA wrote:
             | The shocking part is just how much you can't get away from
             | stupid problems like this. Hilbert believed we could settle
             | these kinds of issues once and for all, the Goedel proved
             | that we can't. So in a sense there isn't anything like "the
             | actual natural numbers without shenanigans", there always
             | are shenanigans.
        
               | naasking wrote:
               | There always are shenanigans if you pass a certain
               | threshold of expressive power. Can we do most or all
               | useful /interesting stuff below that threshold though?
        
               | H8crilA wrote:
               | Excessive power has been proven to be just addition and
               | multiplication over the natural numbers. So - no, we
               | can't.
        
               | naasking wrote:
               | Yes, addition _and_ multiplication over the _infinite_
               | naturals. I don 't think it's obvious that all three of
               | these are needed together for all interesting
               | applications. For instance, various types of finitism
               | eliminate the infinities.
        
           | Kranar wrote:
           | Not at all. There is no largest natural number to begin with
           | even in the standard model. One way to conceptualize non-
           | standard natural numbers would be to consider natural numbers
           | with an infinite number of digits. Any such number would be
           | greater than any natural number, and no first order model of
           | arithmetic can exclude every possible way to express such
           | numbers.
           | 
           | The main issue is that first order logic can't define the
           | concept of finite. There is no way for a first order system
           | to express a statement like "There are only finitely many x
           | such that P(x) holds." Introducing such a finite quantifier
           | or finite predicate will also introduce inconsistencies.
           | 
           | If it were possible then one could introduce an axiom along
           | the lines of "For all x, x has a finite number of
           | predecessors." and then we could eliminate all non-standard
           | natural numbers.
        
         | hfhdjdks wrote:
         | >Since this theorem is true for the standard model of the
         | natural numbers but not provable
         | 
         | I've always found the provable vs true comparison confusing.
         | How can we say the statement is true under the standard model
         | if we cannot prove it? I understand that it could be true, but
         | how do we know it? If it's proven with second order arithmetic,
         | then this implies it is true under the standard model too?
         | 
         | Or are there statements true independently of the axiomatic
         | system you use to prove them? (Apologies if this is too off-
         | topic)
        
           | symple wrote:
           | The provability of a statement depends upon which system you
           | are in. For instance, within PA one can't prove that PA is
           | consistent but within ZFC one can prove that PA is
           | consistent. We can say of a statement: Statement A can't be
           | proven in a given axiomatic system but it can be proven in a
           | different system.
           | 
           | Let's assume the Natural Numbers are consistent system. Let's
           | collect all true statements in this system and use that
           | collection as our axioms. It is now the case that every true
           | statement about the Natural Numbers can be proven in this
           | system. The problem with this system of axioms is that there
           | is no effective procedure for determining if a statement is
           | an axiom or not. It is not a useful system.
           | 
           | Every true statement can be proven in some system. The
           | incompleteness theorems show that we can't have a relatively
           | simple set of axioms that are powerful enough to prove all
           | true statements about the Natural Numbers. Every simple
           | enough set of axioms for the Natural Numbers will have
           | nonstandard implementations (models) in which some statements
           | are false in these nonstandard models but true in the Natural
           | Numbers.
        
         | lanstin wrote:
         | Is there a cite for that? (About true in all models implies
         | provable?). This post is the first I have heard that but it
         | seems very significant.
        
           | symple wrote:
           | It's the Completeness Theorem.
        
           | magneticnorth wrote:
           | Godel's completeness theorem https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/G%
           | C3%B6del%27s_completeness_th...
           | 
           | (Not to be confused with Godel's incompleteness theorems)
        
       | tromp wrote:
       | Another sequence that's about as simple to define as Goodstein's
       | is the following: Start with any binary tree, which is either 0,
       | or a pair [s,t] of binary trees. Then while it's not 0,
       | repeatedly apply the following predecessor operation P on binary
       | trees:                   P([0,t]) = t         P([s,t]) = [P(s),t]
       | but with all instances of t replaced by [P(s),t]
       | 
       | For example, starting from [[0,0],0], we have the sequence of
       | predecessor trees                   [[0,0],0]
       | [[0,0],[0,0]]         [0,[0,[0,0]]]         [0,[0,0]]
       | [0,0]         0
       | 
       | This sequence grows unbelievably faster than Goodstein's, and
       | even faster than the infamous TREE() function [1], while having
       | an almost trivial definition. The number of predecessors to reach
       | 0 is sequence A367433 in the Online Encyclopedia of Integer
       | Sequences [2].
       | 
       | [1]
       | https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kruskal%27s_tree_theorem#TREE_...
       | 
       | [2] https://oeis.org/A367433
        
         | Sharlin wrote:
         | Worth noting that this sequence was introduced, of all places,
         | as an answer to a codegolf.stackexchange question in 2021!
         | 
         | https://codegolf.stackexchange.com/a/219466
        
           | tromp wrote:
           | Indeed; a lot of gems are to be found there. Like this 49 bit
           | program to exceed Graham's Number [1].
           | 
           | [1] https://codegolf.stackexchange.com/questions/6430/shortes
           | t-t...
        
         | dandanua wrote:
         | This function is almost like in the definition of middle-
         | growing hierarchy https://googology.fandom.com/wiki/Middle-
         | growing_hierarchy But this hierarchy can be defined for any
         | ordinal with a system of notations.
         | 
         | I'm wondering if there is some deeper sense in this Patcail's
         | predecessor function? Are there some follow up research on
         | that?
        
         | wruza wrote:
         | Last 4 terms are trivial. But I have trouble following even the
         | first step. The SE answer is also pretty comprehensible, but as
         | if there was some default assumption I'm not aware of. Do we
         | make one-time substitution, or recursive? Stopping rules feel
         | arbitrary in all enumeration combinatorics I try.
         | 
         | https://codegolf.stackexchange.com/a/219466
        
           | dandanua wrote:
           | Just look at the expanded js code, I also had troubles with
           | the more informal description. It's a one-time substitution
           | but for all matches.
        
           | tromp wrote:
           | The first step proceeds as follow. We want the predecessor of
           | [s,t] with s=[0,0] and t=0.
           | 
           | We first compute s' = P(s) = P([0,0]) = 0. Then in [s',t] =
           | [0,0] we must replace all occurrences of 0 with [0,0], which
           | results in [[0,0],[0,0]]. This is a one-time substitution
           | (else it would never end).
        
       | cubefox wrote:
       | The author of this article writes that the theorem cannot be
       | proven in "Peano arithmetic". But that's only true if by that he
       | means "first-order Peano arithmetic", a system which allows for
       | absurd "non-standard numbers". When ordinary mathematicians talk
       | about "Peano arithmetic", they arguably have the second-order
       | induction axiom in mind, not the first-order infinite induction
       | axiom scheme. And they most certainly have the natural numbers in
       | mind, not some possibly absurd "numbers" with infinitely many
       | predecessors. And in this normal version of Peano arithmetic, the
       | theorem can be proven.
        
         | tromp wrote:
         | > When ordinary mathematicians talk about "Peano arithmetic",
         | they arguably have the second-order induction axiom in mind
         | 
         | When they have the latter in mind, they call it second order
         | arithmetic (or Z2), rather than Peano arithmetic (or PA) [1].
         | 
         | [1] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Second-order_arithmetic
        
           | daxfohl wrote:
           | The link to "Peano arithmetic" at the top of the Goodstein
           | page takes you to Peano axioms page. That page says Peano
           | axioms are "close to" second-order arithmetic, and it also
           | provides an informal distinction between Peano axioms and
           | Peano arithmetic. But there's no wikipedia page for Peano
           | arithmetic.
           | 
           | So I'm curious if this theorem is unprovable in Peano axioms,
           | or just Peano arithmetic. If the latter, then the link at the
           | top of the Goodstein page is rather misleading, unless you're
           | paying close enough attention to notice the blurb about the
           | distinction between Peano axioms and Peano arithmetic.
        
             | thaumasiotes wrote:
             | > But there's no wikipedia page for Peano arithmetic.
             | 
             | But there is such a page. It redirects to https://en.wikipe
             | dia.org/wiki/Peano_axioms#Peano_arithmetic_... .
        
               | daxfohl wrote:
               | Oh, I missed that! I'd searched google for the term, and
               | it just returned the top-level Peano axioms page.
               | 
               | Anyway, updated the link on the Goodstein's Theorem page
               | to point to that section specifically.
        
           | cubefox wrote:
           | Logicians and set theorists use this terminology. But
           | everyone else just uses the second-order induction axiom when
           | talking about arithmetic, without explicitly talking about
           | first or second-order logic. Steven Shapiro made this point
           | in his book "Thinking About Mathematics".
        
         | YetAnotherNick wrote:
         | According to different page in wikipedia, Peano axioms is
         | second order but "Peano arithmetic" is first order.
         | 
         | > The ninth, final axiom is a second-order statement of the
         | principle of mathematical induction over the natural numbers,
         | which makes this formulation close to second-order arithmetic.
         | A weaker first-order system called Peano arithmetic is obtained
         | by explicitly adding the addition and multiplication operation
         | symbols and replacing the second-order induction axiom with a
         | first-order axiom schema.
         | 
         | [1]: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Peano_axioms
        
           | cubefox wrote:
           | Yeah, but this terminology is fairly idiosyncratic. Probably
           | a convention the main author likes to follow.
        
             | throwaway81523 wrote:
             | No it's pretty standard. Peano's axioms from the 19th
             | century had an induction axiom in second order logic, since
             | it quantified over predicates. Peano arithmetic (PA), also
             | called first order arithmetic, came later. It is a first
             | order theory whose induction axioms are an infinite schema.
             | To confuse things further, second-order arithmetic (SOA) is
             | also a first order theory, whose objects are naturals and
             | sets of naturals.
        
               | cubefox wrote:
               | It's pretty standard also to talk about "first-order
               | Peano arithmetic" and "second-order Peano arithmetic".
               | This is much more clear but inconsistent with the other
               | usage which you describe.
               | 
               | Moreover, non-logicians don't talk about "first-order" or
               | "second-order" logic at all. They just express the
               | induction axiom in plain English, and in this case it is
               | (as Stewart Shapiro argued) equivalent to the second-
               | order axiom.
        
         | Jaxan wrote:
         | I think the article mentions this clearly in the introduction:
         | "it is unprovable in Peano arithmetic (but it can be proven in
         | stronger systems, such as second-order arithmetic)."
        
           | cubefox wrote:
           | Yeah, but this terminological distinction is not really
           | justified. It should be simply between first and second order
           | Peano arithmetic.
        
         | ShamelessC wrote:
         | That's clarified almost immediately in the article.
         | 
         | Also, Wikipedia articles can have multiple authors.
        
       | ConnorMooneyhan wrote:
       | I remember this being shown on PBS Infinite Series. God I miss
       | that show.
        
         | ykonstant wrote:
         | Kelsey has a new channel on YouTube called Chalk Talk. It got
         | some traction with a few lovely videos, but it's been some time
         | since she maade one. I suspect there is a funding issue.
         | 
         | https://www.youtube.com/@chalktalkmath
        
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