[HN Gopher] Mathematical Foundations of Monte Carlo Methods
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Mathematical Foundations of Monte Carlo Methods
Author : poindontcare
Score : 68 points
Date : 2022-04-20 11:56 UTC (1 days ago)
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| it wrote:
| Here's an alternative for Bayesians:
| http://georglsm.r-forge.r-project.org/site-projects/pdf/7113...
| Spivakov wrote:
| An informal perspective on some implication of Monte Carlo on
| integral:
|
| One of the most intuitive (and used in applications) definition
| of being integrable is Riemann integral based on the geometric
| idea that you can compute the area/volume by dividing region into
| pieces and summing them all up. Now you can (mathematically)
| prove that for any such integrable function, its integral can be
| approximated by Monte Carlo and the results are consistent.
|
| Now what about the other direction? You can theoretically run
| Monte Carlo approx on wildly zigzag functions that does not make
| any geometry sense (i.e. not Riemann integrable), if the
| "probability" in the space is well-defined. The idea that uses
| probability, instead of geometry, turns out to give a broader
| class of integrable objects.
|
| One interesting observation is that these ideas are intuitive and
| meaningful if put informally. But when you formally look into
| these ideas (integration/measure theory) it suddenly collapses
| into lines of terse mathematical constructs.
| l33t2328 wrote:
| You're certainly aware of this, but for those that aren't:
| asking that the "probability" in the space to be well defined
| you are essentially invoking the idea that the function is
| _measurable_. Measure is a way to generalize things like length
| and volume to sets which have no length or volume in the
| traditional sense. One good way to do this is say that lines
| have "measure" equal to their length, and if you can combine
| line segments(even infinitely many) to get some new line then
| that line has measure as well. If you do make this precise, you
| get the so-called "Borel measure" on the real line.
|
| If you want all subsets of sets with 0 Borel measure to also
| have 0 measure, then this leads to the notion of the lebesgue
| measure, and it can be used to define the lebesgue integral.
| pfortuny wrote:
| Two insights more
|
| a) But for probability you nees the measure of the whole
| space to be 1, which forces points "far away" to have very
| small "weight". Thus, there is no uniform distribution in the
| whole R.
|
| b) and then your mind blows up when you realize that discrete
| probability is the very same thing, and that an integral in a
| finite set is just summation.
| ronald_raygun wrote:
| Yeah to add to this when you study probability at a more
| advanced level, you learn that really what a probability is
| "just" an integral ie P(x) = integral{Indicator function(X)}.
| So it's actually not a crazy object to pop up when you're
| thinking about integrals and integral approximations.
| arc-in-space wrote:
| When I was beginning to study path tracing I've learned to avoid
| this domain, the presentation always seems so friendly but the
| actual material is unfortunately much too barebones
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