Subj : Re: "Alma"=Virgin? To : All From : fhopper1572@gmail.com Date : Fri May 29 2020 04:16:13 From: fhopper1572@gmail.com On Tuesday, December 17, 1996 at 12:00:00 AM UTC-8, David Coomler wrote: > On Tue, 17 Dec 1996, Dennis Alexander wrote: > > > This connotation is equally true in Hebrew, as is evident when you examine > > the use of the word "alma" throughout the OT. Apart from Isaiah 7:14, the > > word is used in only six other passages: > > > > 1) Genesis 24:43 -- Rebekah, who previously in the chapter (v.16) is > > described as "very beautiful, a virgin; no man had ever lain with her," is > > in v.43 called a "maiden" ("alma"). > > Stop and think about it; if in verse sixteen she is called a "virgin" > (betulah) and in 43 she is called a young woman, then obviously the term > used to indicate a virgin is betulah and not 'almah. To make it simple > for you, it is like saying "That girl ('almah) is a virgin (bethulah). If > this is kept in mind, all becomes clear. > > And, interestingly, in the Greek translation used by by the first > Christians, the same one that translates almah in Isaiah 7:14 as > "parthenos," you will find that the same "all purpose" word is used to > translate "virgin" in verse 16; in other words, the Septuagint is not a > very accurate translation. It uses the same term to translate both 'almah > and betulah here. And that is not all. In another verse you quote, > Exodus 2:8, which speaks of the sister of Moses, in Hebrew she is called > and 'almah; but the Septuagint translates this term, the same used in > Isaiah 7:14, as "neanis," which means simply a girl or young woman. From > this you can see that the Septuagint not only translates two different > terms as parthenos, but it also gives the same term translated as > parthenos in one place as neanis in another. In the Song of Songs example > you gave (1:3), the hebrew plural of 'alma is translated not by Greek > parthenoi, but by "neanides." So you can see the Septuagint, the Greek > version Matthew and the early church used, is really quite inconsistent, > and Trypho the Jew (whether a literary character or not) was right to > argue that the Christians mistranslated "young woman" as "virgin." > > This all gets a little complex for those who may not know Greek or Hebrew, > but the short version of the matter is that the Greek translation was not > very precise or accurate in some instances, which takes us back to where > we started. The term 'almah, in Isaiah 7:14, is not the term used when > one wants to specify that someone is a virgin. That is demonstrated by > the Genesis 24:16 example you gave, in which the term betulah is used to > show that Rebekah was a virgin, and added to that is the emphatic "no man > had known her." > > And, as I have already pointed out, this is actually a secondary issue > that just confirms the primary matter. Many girls are virgins before they > conceive. They are not so after. It happens every day. And in Hebrew, > it does not specify that the event is to be future. In Jewish > translations into English it is given the present tense. So even if one > does mistranslate 'almah as virgin instead of girl or young woman, Isaiah > 7:14 still says nothing about a virgin birth. > > David --- NewsGate v1.0 gamma 2 * Origin: News Gate @ Net396 -Huntsville, AL - USA (1:396/4) .