Subj : Re: [spidermonkey] - determine JSVal is function
To   : netscape.public.mozilla.jseng
From : Frédéric Lecointre
Date : Wed Mar 16 2005 01:16 am


"Brendan Eich" <brendan@meer.net> a écrit dans le message de news:
42376D7B.6090305@meer.net...
> Brendan Eich wrote:
>
> > The id is not the value, so why are you checking what kind of value id
> > is?
>
> Sorry, that first sentence was pretty unclear!  What I meant was that a
> property's id (passed into the getter) is not its value (returned via
> the *vp out parameter).  You can't tell whether some property's *value*
> is a function, or could be something callable, by looking at the id of
> that property (its name).
>
> /be

My question is unclear too !

for the moment, i can call php function from javascript by returning a
JSFunction with a wrapper as native function to call php function and
convert the result but i can't see the difference between obj.func and
obj.func(); in my getter.

in first case, script use the property , in other the method.
php allow this ( even if it's bad design ):
class test{

    public $prop = 0;


    function prop(){

        return NULL;

    }

}

$test2 = 0;

function test2(){

    return NULL;

}

Now, i ask myself if i use JS_DefineProperty , is getter be called to get
defined properties ?

i have already a solution ( whith struct in privatedata )



p.s: question follow ;-)

.