Subj : Re: GNU Public Licences Revisited (again) To : comp.programming From : David Golden Date : Sat Sep 03 2005 04:11 am Here are some URLs, the referenced documents might help you comment more intelligently on joint ownership vs. no ownership: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Concurrent_estate http://www.lawspirit.com/legalenglish/handbook/prop07.htm http://indigo.ie/~kwood/tenancy.htm Maybe you should also consult people on "your" side (note use of term "IPR"): see document at the following URL for considerations of German and English joint ownership laws as applied to copyrights considered as I"P": http://www.ipr-helpdesk.org/docs/docs.EN/JointOwnership.html > You're making a pseudo distinction, because you haven't given a > process for deciding what a 'common owner' can do. The requirement for a process to decide that derives from considering the joint ownership of the property to exist (itself dependent on considering ownership of the thing in question to exist). Jointly owned property, like other property, is mostly a legal result, so the laws for dealing with it that exist give it its "reality", in ours or in a communist-oid legal system. Is it so difficult to conceive of a court upholding your various rights as a joint owner of public property rather than as an exclusive owner of a private property? So a possible process for deciding what a "common owner" can do would be to have the joint owners try to reach agreement without seeking a legal judgement, and if they fail, the law courts, themselves perhaps created in part for the very purpose of resolving such disputes, have the authority to decide. The particulars of the processes for resolving disputes arising from joint ownership will depend on what rules and laws people including the joint owners have made up, and thus vary from jurisdiction to jurisdiction. In some places, where companies have come into existence as a means of dealing with joint ownership, owners may wish to avoid the courts that might decide on a disastrous division of the property as "fair", and not let the property go to waste but profit from it (what a capital idea...), and agree to form a "joint stock company" with the property transferred to the company as stock and shares issued entitling the holders to profits from the company's use of the stock (and exposing them to liability for debts, if limitation of shareholder liability hasn't yet appeared). Executives might be employed, drawn from the ranks of the or otherwise, to administer decisions about the company and stock as "servants of the shareholders" to maximise returns on behalf of shareholders. And hey, executives of a company may become terribly corrupt, just as "servants of the people" administering various jointly-owned properties of a nation might. Note that agreeing on particular uses of a property with other joint owners is NOT the same as surrendering your part of ownership of the property. We can still both own a field even if we agree it best for you to grow hemp on it. If I'm married to someone, we can both continue to own a house even if we agree it's best I convert the garage into a shark aquarium. > Whoever decides that is the real owner. Well, I wouldn't necessarily wildly disagree with you if you are asserting that it's executives and judges and arguing lawyers in the West who are effectively "real owners", not the nominal property owners - sure seems that way sometimes. Nor would I necessarily wildly disagree with you that in large-scale "communism" with central planning, the people in government allocating stuff "in the best interests of the people" and the judges and lawyer-analogues would be are effectively the "real owners" - in fact I came pretty close to expressing very similar sentiments. "Unanimous consent or nothing happens" as in some small hippy communes, would be a different matter, as would each joint owner agreeing to be bound by majority vote among the joint owners, say, or agreeing to decide based on outcomes of sporting events held for the purpose... Of course, all this is just to illustrate that communal ownership and no ownership are not at all "the same thing", I was not arguing for or against communal ownership of assumed-ownable information OR assumed-ownable stuff, particularly: I don't agree in the first place with ownership of information considered as independent of its physical medium, only each physical copy of some information should be "property". [*if* ownership of information or copyrights exists, I'd hold a possibility of joint ownership should exist and be recognised in law, as appears to be the case for copyrights right now according to one of the above links.] .